CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. Which interface is the default location that would contain the IP address used to manage a 24-port Ethernet switch?

  • VLAN 1
  • Fa0/0
  • Fa0/1
  • interface connected to the default gateway
  • VLAN 99

2. In which type of attack does a malicious node request all available IP addresses in the address pool of a DHCP server in order to prevent legitimate hosts from obtaining network access?

  • CAM table overflow
  • MAC address flooding
  • DHCP starvation
  • DHCP spoofing

3. What impact does the use of the

mdix auto

configuration command have

on an Ethernet interface on a switch?

  • automatically detects duplex settings
  • automatically detects interface speed
  • automatically detects copper cable type
  • automatically assigns the first detected MAC address to an interface

4. Which type of cable does a network administrator need to connect a PC to a switch to recover it after the Cisco IOS software fails to load?

  • a coaxial cable
  • a console cable
  • a crossover cable
  • a straight-through cable  

5. While troubleshooting a connectivity problem, a network administrator notices that a switch port status LED is alternating between green and amber. What could this LED indicate?

  • The port has no link.
  • The port is experiencing errors.
  • The port is administratively down.
  • A PC is using the wrong cable to connect to the port.
  • The port has an active link with normal traffic activity.

6. A production switch is reloaded and finishes with a

Switch>

prompt. What two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)

  • POST occurred normally.
  • The boot process was interrupted.
  • There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.
  • A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.
  • The switch did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.

7. Which command displays information about the auto-MDIX setting for a specific interface?

  • show interfaces
  • show controllers
  • show processes
  • show running-config

8. Refer to the exhibit. What media issue might exist on the link connected to Fa0/1 based on the show interface command?

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

  • The bandwidth parameter on the interface might be too high.
  • There could be an issue with a faulty NIC.
  • There could be too much electrical interference and noise on the link.
  • The cable attaching the host to port Fa0/1 might be too long.
  • The interface might be configured as half-duplex.

9.Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections. How should the network administrator change the displayed configuration to satisfy the requirement?

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

 

  • Use SSH version 1.
  • Reconfigure the RSA key.
  • Configure SSH on a different line.
  • Modify the transport input command.

10. Which protocol or service sends broadcasts containing the Cisco IOS software version of the sending device, and the packets of which can be captured by malicious hosts on the network?

  • CDP
  • DHCP
  • DNS
  • SSH

11. Which two statements are true about using full-duplex Fast Ethernet? (Choose two.)

  • Performance is improved with bidirectional data flow.
  • Latency is reduced because the NIC processes frames faster.
  • Nodes operate in full-duplex with unidirectional data flow.
  • Performance is improved because the NIC is able to detect collisions.
  • Full-duplex Fast Ethernet offers 100 percent efficiency in both directions.

12. Which method would mitigate a MAC address flooding attack?

  • increasing the size of the CAM table
  • configuring port security
  • using ACLs to filter broadcast traffic on the switch
  • increasing the speed of switch ports

13. Which two basic functions are performed by network security tools? (Choose two.)

  • revealing the type of information an attacker is able to gather from monitoring network traffic
  • educating employees about social engineering attacks
  • simulating attacks against the production network to
  • determine any existing vulnerabilities
  • writing a security policy document for protecting networks
  • controlling physical access to user devices

14. Which action will bring an error-disabled switch port back to an operational state?

  • Remove and reconfigure port security on the interface.
  • Issue the switchport mode access command on the interface.
  • Clear the MAC address table on the switch.
  • Issue the shutdown and then no shutdown interface commands.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which S1 switch port interface or interfaces should be configured with the ip dhcp snooping trust command if best practices are implemented?

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

 

  • only the G0/1 port
  • only unused ports
  • only the G0/1 and G0/24 ports
  • only the G0/2, G0/3, and G0/4 ports
  • only the G0/1, G0/2, G0/3, and G0/4 ports

16. Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/2 has already been configured appropriately. The IP phone and PC work properly. Which switch configuration would be most appropriate for port Fa0/2 if the network administrator has the following goals?

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

  • SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
    SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
  • SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
    SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
  • SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
    SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
    SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
  • SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
    SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
    SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
    SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security violation restrict

17. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about port security from the information that is shown?

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 005 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 005 (v5.02, 2015)

  • The port has been shut down.
  • The port has two attached devices.
  • The port violation mode is the default for any port that has port security enabled.
  • The port has the maximum number of MAC addresses that is supported by a Layer 2 switch port which is configured for port security.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which event will take place if there is a port security violation on switch S1 interface Fa0/1?

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 006 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 006 (v5.02, 2015)

  • A notification is sent.
  • A syslog message is logged.
  • Packets with unknown source addresses will be dropped.
  • The interface will go into error-disabled state.

19. The network administrator enters the following commands on a Cisco switch:

Switch(config)# interface vlan1

Switch(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0

Switch(config-if)# no shutdown

What is the effect of entering these commands?

  • All devices attached to this switch must be in the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet to communicate.
  • The switch is able to forward frames to remote networks.
  • The address of the default gateway for this LAN is 192.168.1.2/24.
  • Users on the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet are able to ping the switch at IP address 192.168.1.2.

20. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)

  • The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.
  • Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
  • The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.
  • After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.
  • If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.

21. Fill in the blank.

full-duplex                communication allows both ends of a connection to transmit and receive data simultaneously.

22. Fill in the blank.

When port security is enabled, a switch port uses the default violation mode of     shutdown      until specifically configured to use a different violation mode.

23. Match the step to each switch boot sequence description. (not all options are used.)

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 007 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 007 (v5.02, 2015)

24. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Fill in the blank.

Do not use abbreviations.What is the missing command on S1?

ip address 192.168.99.2 255.255.255.0

READ MORE » CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. Which two statements are true about VLAN implementation? (Choose two.)

  • The size of the collision domain is reduced.
  • The number of required switches in a network decreases.
  • VLANs logically group hosts, regardless of physical location.
  • The network load increases significantly because of added trunking information.
  • Devices in one VLAN do not hear the broadcasts from devices in another VLAN.

2. Which three statements accurately describe VLAN types? (Choose three).

  • A management VLAN is any VLAN that is configured to access management features of the switch.
  • A data VLAN is used to carry VLAN management data and user-generated traffic.
  • After the initial boot of an unconfigured switch, all ports are members of the default VLAN.
  • An 802.1Q trunk port, with a native VLAN assigned, supports both tagged and untagged traffic.
  • Voice VLANs are used to support user phone and e-mail traffic on a network.
  • VLAN 1 is always used as the management VLAN.

3. A network administrator is determining the best placement of VLAN trunk links. Which two types of point-to-point connections utilize VLAN trunking? (Choose two.)

  • between two switches that utilize multiple VLANs
  • between a switch and a client PC
  • between a switch and a server that has an 802.1Q NIC
  • between a switch and a network printer
  • between two switches that share a common VLAN

4. Refer to the exhibit. A frame is traveling between PC-A and PC-B through the switch. Which statement is true concerning VLAN tagging of the frame?

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

  • A VLAN tag is added when the frame leaves PC-A.
  • A VLAN tag is added when the frame is accepted by the switch.
  • A VLAN tag is added when the frame is forwarded out the port to PC-B.
  • No VLAN tag is added to the frame.

5. What is the effect of issuing a switchport access vlan 20 command on the Fa0/18 port of a switch that does not have this VLAN in the VLAN database?

  • The command will have no effect on the switch.
  • VLAN 20 will be created automatically.
  • An error stating that VLAN 20 does not exist will be displayed and VLAN 20 is not created.
  • Port Fa0/18 will be shut down.

6. Port Fa0/11 on a switch is assigned to VLAN 30. If the command no switchport access vlan 30 is entered on the Fa0/11 interface, what will happen?

  • Port Fa0/11 will be shutdown.
  • An error message would be displayed.
  • Port Fa0/11 will be returned to VLAN 1.
  • VLAN 30 will be deleted.

7. Which command is used to remove only VLAN 20 from a switch?

  • delete vlan.dat
  • delete flash:vlan.dat
  • no vlan 20
  • no switchport access vlan 20

8. Which command displays the encapsulation type, the voice VLAN ID, and the access mode VLAN for the Fa0/1 interface?

  • show vlan brief
  • show interfaces Fa0/1 switchport
  • show mac address-table interface Fa0/1
  • show interfaces trunk

9. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?

 

  • Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.
  • Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
  • Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
  • Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.


10. A Cisco Catalyst switch has been added to support the use of multiple VLANs as part of an enterprise network. The network technician finds it necessary to clear all VLAN information from the switch in order to incorporate a new network design. What should the technician do to accomplish this task?

  • Erase the startup configuration and reboot the switch.
  • Erase the running configuration and reboot the switch.
  • Delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of the switch and reboot the switch.
  • Delete the IP address that is assigned to the management VLAN and reboot the switch.

11. A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with VLANs 10 and 20 across trunk port Fa0/5. What is the effect of issuing a

switchport trunk allowed vlan 30

command on Fa0/5?

  • It allows VLANs 1 to 30 on Fa0/5.
  • It allows VLANs 10, 20, and 30 on Fa0/5.
  • It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5.
  • It allows a native VLAN of 30 to be implemented on Fa0/5.

12. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?

  • All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
  • Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
  • Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
  • The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.

13. Which command should the network administrator implement to prevent the transfer of DTP frames between a Cisco switch and a non-Cisco switch?

  • S1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
  • S1(config-if)# switchport nonegotiate
  • S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
  • S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
  • S1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan none

14. Under which two occasions should an administrator disable DTP while managing a local area network? (Choose two.)

  • when connecting a Cisco switch to a non-Cisco switch
  • when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic auto
  • when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic desirable
  • on links that should not be trunking
  • on links that should dynamically attempt trunking

15. Refer to the exhibit. PC-A and PC-B are both in VLAN 60. PC-A is unable to communicate with PC-B. What is the problem?

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

  • The native VLAN should be VLAN 60.
  • The native VLAN is being pruned from the link.
  • The trunk has been configured with the switchport nonegotiate command.
  • The VLAN that is used by PC-A is not in the list of allowed VLANs on the trunk.

16. Refer to the exhibit. DLS1 is connected to another switch, DLS2, via a trunk link. A host that is connected to DLS1 is not able to communicate to a host that is connected to DLS2, even though they are both in VLAN 99. Which command should be added to Fa0/1 on DLS1 to correct the problem?

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

  • switchport nonegotiate
  • switchport mode dynamic auto
  • switchport trunk native vlan 66
  • switchport trunk allowed vlan add 99

17. What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN 10 when the administrator deletes VLAN 10 from the switch?

  • The port becomes inactive.
  • The port goes back to the default VLAN.
  • The port automatically associates itself with the native VLAN.
  • The port creates the VLAN again.

18. In a basic VLAN hopping attack, which switch feature do attackers take advantage of?

  • an open Telnet connection
  • automatic encapsulation negotiation
  • forwarding of broadcasts
  • the default automatic trunking configuration

19. Which switch feature ensures that no unicast, multicast, or broadcast traffic is passed between ports that are configured with this feature?

  • VLAN
  • PVLAN protected port
  • ACL
  • switch port security

20. Which two Layer 2 security best practices would help prevent VLAN hopping attacks? (Choose two.)

  • Change the native VLAN number to one that is distinct from all user VLANs and is not VLAN 1.
  • Change the management VLAN to a distinct VLAN that is not accessible by regular users.
  • Statically configure all ports that connect to end-user host devices to be in trunk mode.
  • Disable DTP autonegotiation on end-user ports.
  • Use SSH for all remote management access.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 is connected to a PC. Fa0/2 is a trunk link to another switch. All other ports are unused. Which security best practice did the administrator forget to configure?

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

  • Disable autonegotiation and set ports to either static access or static trunk.
  • Change the native VLAN to a fixed VLAN that is distinct from all user VLANs and to a VLAN number that is not VLAN 1.
  • Configure all unused ports to a ‘black-hole’ VLAN that is not used for anything on the network.
  • All user ports are associated with VLANs distinct from VLAN 1 and distinct from the ‘black-hole’ VLAN.

22. Fill in the blank

Use the full command syntax.
The             show vlan           command displays the VLAN assignment for all ports as well as the existing VLANs on the switch.

23. Match the DTP mode with its function. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer 005 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer 005 (v5.02, 2015)

 

24. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which PCs will receive the broadcast sent by PC-C?

  • PC-A, PC-B
  • PC-D, PC-E
  • PC-A, PC-B, PC-E
  • PC-A, PC-B, PC-D, PC-E
  • PC-A, PC-B, PC-D, PC-E, PC-F
READ MORE » CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

  • It connects multiple IP networks.
  • It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
  • It determines the best path to send packets.
  • It manages the VLAN database.
  • It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

2. In order for packets to be sent to a remote destination, what three pieces of information must be configured on a host? (Choose three.)

  • hostname
  • IP address
  • subnet mask
  • default gateway
  • DNS server address
  • DHCP server address

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown. When the administrator checks the status of the serial interface, the interface is shown as being administratively down. What additional command must be entered on the serial interface of R1 to bring the interface up?

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

  • IPv6 enable
  • clockrate 128000
  • end
  • no shutdown

4. What is one feature that distinguishes routers from Layer 2 switches?

  • Routers can be configured with IP addresses. Switches cannot.
  • Switches move packets from one physical interface to another. Routers do not.
  • Switches use tables of information to determine how to process data traffic. Routers do not.
  • Routers support a variety of interface types. Switches typically support Ethernet interfaces.

5. Which command is used to configure an IPv6 address on a router interface so that the router will combine a manually specified network prefix with an automatically generated interface identifier?

  • ipv6 enable
  • ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length
  • ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length eui-64
  • ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length link-local

6. What type of IPv6 address is required as a minimum on IPv6 enabled interfaces?

  • loopback
  • unique local
  • link-local
  • static
  • global unicast

7. What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)

  • IP addresses
  • MAC addresses
  • Layer 1 statuses
  • next-hop addresses
  • interface descriptions
  • speed and duplex settings

8. When a computer is pinging another computer for the first time, what type of message does it place on the network to determine the MAC address of the other device?

  • an ICMP ping
  • an ARP request
  • an RFI (Request for Information) message
  • a multicast to any Layer 3 devices that are connected to the local network

9. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 attempts to connect to File_server1 and sends an ARP request to obtain a destination MAC address. Which MAC address will PC1 receive in the ARP reply?

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

  • the MAC address of S1
  • the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R1
  • the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R2
  • the MAC address of S2
  • the MAC address of File_server1

10. A packet moves from a host on one network to a device on a remote network within the same company. If NAT is not performed on the packet, which two items remain unchanged during the transfer of the packet from source to destination? (Choose two.)

  • destination IP address
  • source ARP table
  • source IP address
  • source MAC address
  • destination MAC address
  • Layer 2 header

11. What address changes as a packet travels across multiple Layer 3 Ethernet hops to its final destination?

  • source IP
  • destination IP
  • source Layer 2 address
  • destination port

12. Which two items are used by a host device when performing an ANDing operation to determine if a destination address is on the same local network? (Choose two.)

  • destination IP address
  • destination MAC address
  • source MAC address
  • subnet mask
  • network number

13. Refer to the exhibit. What will the router do with a packet that has a destination IP address of 192.168.12.227?

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

  • Drop the packet.
  • Send the packet out the Serial0/0/0 interface.
  • Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.
  • Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface.

14. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)

  • Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
  • A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances.
  • The value of the administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator.
  • Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
  • The metric is always determined based on hop count.
  • The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP.

15. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 route command on R1. Which two types of routes are displayed in the routing table? (Choose two.)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

  • static route
  • local host route
  • directly connected network
  • route that is learned through the OSPF routing protocol
  • route that is learned through the EIGRP routing protocol

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 route command on R1. What two conclusions can be drawn from the routing table? (Choose two.)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 005 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 005 (v5.02, 2015)

  • static route
  • local host route
  • directly connected network
  • route that is learned through the OSPF routing protocol
  • route that is learned through the EIGRP routing protocol

17. A network administrator configures the interface fa0/0 on the router R1 with the command ip address 172.16.1.254 255.255.255.0. However, when the administrator issues the command show ip route, the routing table does not show the directly connected network. What is the possible cause of the problem?

  • The interface fa0/0 has not been activated.
  • The configuration needs to be saved first.
  • No packets with a destination network of 172.16.1.0 have been sent to R1.
  • The subnet mask is incorrect for the IPv4 address.

18. A network administrator configures a router by the command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226. What is the purpose of this command?

  • to forward all packets to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226
  • to add a dynamic route for the destination network 0.0.0.0 to the routing table
  • to forward packets destined for the network 0.0.0.0 to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226
  • to provide a route to forward packets for which there is no route in the routing table

19. A network administrator is implementing dynamic routing protocols for a company. Which command can the administrator issue on a router to display the supported routing protocols?

  • Router(config)# router ?
  • Router(config)# service ?
  • Router(config)# ip route ?
  • Router(config)# ip forward-protocol ?

20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ip route command on R2. What two types of routes are installed in the routing table? (Choose two.)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 006 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 006 (v5.02, 2015)

  • a configured default route
  • directly connected networks
  • routes that are learned through the OSPF routing protocol
  • routes that are learned through the EIGRP routing protocol
  • a configured static route to the network 209.165.200.224

21. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the highlighted field in the line that is displayed from the show ip route command?

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 007 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 007 (v5.02, 2015)

  • It indicates that this is a default route.
  • It indicates that this route was learned via EIGRP.
  • It indicates that this is a directly connected route.
  • It indicates that this route has been deleted from the routing table.

22. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

  • It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
  • It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
  • It has an administrative distance of 1.
  • It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

23. Fill in the blank.

When a router receives a packet, it examines the destination address of the packet and looks in the              Routing                 table to determine the best path to use to forward the packet.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Match the description with the routing table entries. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 008 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 008 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 009 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 009 (v5.02, 2015)

 

READ MORE » CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 1 Chapter 4 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation method used for specific types of media?

  • application
  • transport
  • data link
  • physical

2. Which statement describes signaling at the physical layer?

  • Sending the signals asynchronously means that they are transmitted without a clock signal.
  • In signaling, a 1 always represents voltage and a 0 always represents the absence of voltage.
  • Wireless encoding includes sending a series of clicks to delimit the frames.
  • Signaling is a method of converting a stream of data into a predefined code

3. What are two reasons for physical layer protocols to use frame encoding techniques? (Choose two.)

  • to reduce the number of collisions on the media
  • to distinguish data bits from control bits
  • to provide better media error correction
  • to identify where the frame starts and ends
  • to increase the media throughput

4. The throughput of a FastEthernet network is 80 Mb/s. The traffic overhead for establishing sessions, acknowledgments, and encapsulation is 15 Mb/s for the same time period. What is the goodput for this network?

  • 15 Mb/s
  • 95 Mb/s
  • 55 Mb/s
  • 65 Mb/s
  • 80 Mb/s

5. A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)

  • EMI
  • crosstalk
  • RFI?
  • signal attenuation
  • extended length of cabling

6. How is the magnetic field cancellation effect enhanced in UTP cables?

  • by increasing the thickness of the PVC sheath that encases all the wires
  • by increasing and varying the number of twists in each wire pair
  • by increasing the thickness of the copper wires
  • by decreasing the number of wires that are used to carry data

7. Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?

CCNA 1 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

 

  • The jack used is an RJ-11 connector instead of an RJ-45 connector.
  • The cable is not shielded.
  • The untwisted length of each wire is too long.
  • The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.

8. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is connected to the console port of the switch. All the other connections are made through FastEthernet links. Which types of UTP cables can be used to connect the devices??

CCNA 1 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

  • 1 – rollover, 2 – crossover, 3 – straight-through
  • 1 – rollover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – crossover
  • 1 – crossover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – rollover
  • 1 – crossover, 2 – rollover, 3 – straight-through

9. Which statement is correct about multimode fiber?

  • Multimode fiber cables carry signals from multiple connected sending devices.
  • Multimode fiber commonly uses a laser as a light source.
  • SC-SC patch cords are used with multimode fiber cables.
  • Multimode fiber has a thinner core than single-mode fiber..

10. What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling?

  • It is usually cheaper than copper cabling.
  • It is able to be installed around sharp bends.
  • It is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling.
  • It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.

11. Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?

  • The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading.
  • They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection.
  • They increase the speed at which the data can travel.
  • They allow for full-duplex connectivity.

12. A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)

  • mobility options
  • security
  • interference
  • coverage area
  • extensive cabling
  • packet collision

13. A network administrator is required to upgrade wireless access to end users in a building. To provide data rates up to 1.3 Gb/s and still be backward compatible with older devices, which wireless standard should be implemented?

  • 802.11n
  • 802.11ac
  • 802.11g
  • 802.11b

14. What is one main characteristic of the data link layer?

  • It generates the electrical or optical signals that represent the 1 and 0 on the media.
  • It converts a stream of data bits into a predefined code.
  • It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware of the physical medium to be used in the communication.
  • It accepts Layer 3 packets and decides the path by which to forward a frame to a host on a remote network.

15. As data travels on the media in a stream of 1s and 0s how does a receiving node identify the beginning and end of a frame??

  • The transmitting node inserts start and stop bits into the frame.
  • The transmitting node sends a beacon to notify that a data frame is attached.
  • The receiving node identifies the beginning of a frame by seeing a physical address.
  • The transmitting node sends an out-of-band signal to the receiver about the beginning of the frame.

16. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

  • The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
  • Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
  • Physical topologies display the IP addressing scheme of each network.
  • Logical topologies determine the media access control method used.

17. What are two characteristics of 802.11 wireless networks? (Choose two.)

  • They use CSMA/CA technology.
  • They use CSMA/CD technology.
  • They are collision-free networks.
  • Stations can transmit at any time.
  • Collisions can exist in the networks.

18. What is the purpose of the FCS field in a frame?

  • to obtain the MAC address of the sending node
  • to verify the logical address of the sending node
  • to compute the CRC header for the data field
  • to determine if errors occurred in the transmission and reception

19. Fill in the blank with a number.

10,000,000,000 b/s can also be written as        10              Gb/s.

20. Fill in the blank.

The term                   bandwidth                        indicates the capacity of a medium to carry data and it is typically measured in kilobits per second (kb/s) or megabits per second (Mb/s).?

21. Fill in the blank.

What acronym is used to reference the data link sublayer that identifies the network layer protocol encapsulated in the frame?      LLC

READ MORE » CCNA 1 Chapter 4 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 1 Chapter 5 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. Which statement is true about MAC addresses?

  • MAC addresses are implemented by software.
  • A NIC only needs a MAC address if connected to a WAN.
  • The first three bytes are used by the vendor assigned OUI.
  • The ISO is responsible for MAC addresses regulations.

2. What is a characteristic of a contention-based access method?

  • It processes more overhead than the controlled access methods do.
  • It has mechanisms to track the turns to access the media.
  • It is a nondeterministic method.
  • It scales very well under heavy media use.

3. Which two statements describe features or functions of the logical link control sublayer in Ethernet standards? (Choose two.)

  • Logical link control is implemented in software.
  • Logical link control is specified in the IEEE 802.3 standard.
  • The LLC sublayer interacts directly with the NIC driver software.
  • The data link layer uses LLC to communicate with the upper layers of the protocol suite.
  • The LLC sublayer is responsible for the placement and retrieval of frames on and off the media.

4. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

  • is used as a padding for data
  • is used for timing synchronization
  • is used to identify the source address
  • is used to identify the destination address

5. What is the Layer 2 multicast MAC address that corresponds to the Layer 3 IPv4 multicast address 224.139.34.56?

  • 00-00-00-0B-22-38
  • 01-00-5E-0B-22-38
  • 01-5E-00-0B-22-38
  • FE-80-00-0B-22-38
  • FF-FF-FF-0B-22-38

6. Which two statements are correct about MAC and IP addresses during data transmission if NAT is not involved? (Choose two.)

  • A packet that has crossed four routers has changed the destination IP address four times.
  • Destination MAC addresses will never change in a frame that goes across seven routers.
  • Destination and source MAC addresses have local significance and change every time a frame goes from one LAN to another.
  • Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain constant along the entire path to a target host.
  • Every time a frame is encapsulated with a new destination MAC address, a new destination IP address is needed.

7. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

  • If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.
  • An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.
  • When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
  • If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.
  • If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.

8. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will happen next??

  • PC2 will send an ARP reply with its MAC address.
  • RT1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/0 MAC address.?
  • RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.?
  • SW1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.?
  • SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.?

9. A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in its ARP cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC address?

  • It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the destination device.
  • It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the default gateway.
  • It will send the frame and use its own MAC address as the destination.
  • It will send the frame with a broadcast MAC address.
  • It will send a request to the DNS server for the destination MAC address.

10. What are two potential network problems that can result from ARP operation? (Choose two.)

  • Manually configuring static ARP associations could facilitate ARP poisoning or MAC address spoofing.
  • On large networks with low bandwidth, multiple ARP broadcasts could cause data communication delays.
  • Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP messages with the intent of intercepting network traffic.
  • Large numbers of ARP request broadcasts could cause the host MAC address table to overflow and prevent the host from communicating on the network.
  • Multiple ARP replies result in the switch MAC address table containing entries that match the MAC addresses of hosts that are connected to the relevant switch port.

11. A network administrator is connecting two modern switches using a straight-through cable. The switches are new and have never been configured. Which three statements are correct about the final result of the connection? (Choose three.)

  • The link between the switches will work at the fastest speed that is supported by both switches.
  • The link between switches will work as full-duplex.
  • If both switches support different speeds, they will each work at their own fastest speed.
  • The auto-MDIX feature will configure the interfaces eliminating the need for a crossover cable.
  • The connection will not be possible unless the administrator changes the cable to a crossover cable.
  • The duplex capability has to be manually configured because it cannot be negotiated.

12. A Layer 2 switch is used to switch incoming frames from a 1000BASE-T port to a port connected to a 100Base-T network. Which method of memory buffering would work best for this task?

  • port-based buffering
  • level 1 cache buffering
  • shared memory buffering
  • fixed configuration buffering

13. When would a switch record multiple entries for a single switch port in its MAC address table?

  • when a router is connected to the switch port
  • when multiple ARP broadcasts have been forwarded
  • when another switch is connected to the switch port
  • when the switch is configured for Layer 3 switching

14. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?

CCNA 1 Chapter 5 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 5 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

 

  • The switch will discard the frame.
  • The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.
  • The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.
  • The switch will forward the frame to all ports.
  • The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.

15. Which two statements describe a fixed configuration Ethernet switch? (Choose two.)

  • The switch cannot be configured with multiple VLANs.
  • An SVI cannot be configured on the switch.
  • A fixed configuration switch may be stackable.
  • The number of ports on the switch cannot be increased.
  • The port density of the switch is determined by the Cisco IOS.

16. How does adding an Ethernet line card affect the form factor of a switch?

  • by increasing the back plane switching speed
  • by expanding the port density
  • by making the switch stackable
  • by expanding the NVRAM capacity

17. A network administrator issues the following commands on a Layer 3 switch:DLS1(config)# interface f0/3

DLS1(config-if)# no switchport

DLS1(config-if)# ip address 172.16.0.1 255.255.255.0

DLS1(config-if)# no shutdown

DLS1(config-if)# endWhat is the administrator configuring?

  • a routed port
  • a switched virtual interface
  • a Cisco Express Forwarding instance
  • a trunk interface

18. Which address or combination of addresses does a Layer 3 switch use to make forwarding decisions?

  • IP address only
  • port address only
  • MAC address only
  • MAC and port addresses
  • MAC and IP addresses

19. What statement illustrates a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

  • Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
  • It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
  • Collisions can decrease network performance.
  • CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

20. Fill in the blank.

The binary number 0000 1010 can be expressed as     0A           in hexadecimal.

Match the characteristic to the forwarding method. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Chapter 5 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 5 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

 

21. Match the seven fields of an Ethernet frame to their respective contents. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Chapter 5 Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 5 Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

 

22. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instruction and then answer the question.

What destination address will PC1 include in the destination address field of the Ethernet frame that it sends to PC2?

  • 192.168.0.17
  • 192.168.0.34
  • 0030.a3e5.0401
  • 00e0.b0be.8014
  • 0007.ec35.a5c6
READ MORE » CCNA 1 Chapter 5 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 4 Chapter 1 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 4 Chapter 1 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%), CCNA 4 Chapter 1 Exam Answer, CCNA 4 Chapter 1, CCNA 4 Chapter 1 v5, CCNA 4 Chapter 1 100, CCNA 4 chapter 1 2015


  1. What are two structured engineering principles necessary for successful implementation of a network design? (Choose two.)



    • quality of service

    • resiliency

    • modularity

    • security

    • availability




  2. What is an important first consideration when starting to design a network?



    • access security

    • type of applications

    • size of the network

    • protocols to be used




  3. Which two devices would commonly be found at the access layer of the hierarchical enterprise LAN design model? (Choose two.)



    • access point

    • firewall

    • Layer 2 switch

    • Layer 3 device

    • modular switch




  4. In which layer of the hierarchical enterprise LAN design model would PoE for VoIP phones and access points be considered?



    • access

    • core

    • data link

    • distribution

    • physical




  5. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Cisco hierarchical LAN design model is used at school site 1?CCNA4_Ch1_01



    • 3 layer

    • 7 layer

    • two-tier collapsed core

    • three-tier




  6. In a hierarchical network design, which layers may be combined into a collapsed core for smaller networks?



    • core and access

    • core and distribution

    • distribution and access

    • core, distribution, and access




  7. The network design for a college with users at five sites is being developed. Where in the campus network architecture would servers used by all users be located?



    • access-distribution

    • data center

    • enterprise edge

    • services




  8. What is one advantage to designing networks in building block fashion for large companies?



    • failure isolation

    • increased network access time

    • mobility

    • redundancy




  9. A network engineer wants to redesign the wireless network and make use of wireless network controllers that manage the many deployed wireless access points. In which network design module of the campus network architecture would the centralized wireless network controllers be found?



    • access-distribution

    • data center

    • enterprise edge

    • services




  10. Which network module is the fundamental component of a campus design?



    • access-distribution module

    • services module

    • data center

    • enterprise edge




  11. Which approach in networking allows for network changes, upgrades, or the introduction of new services in a controlled and staged fashion?



    • borderless

    • static

    • modular

    • network module




  12. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of ISP connectivity to the service provider edge is being used by company A?CCNA4_Ch1_02



    • single-homed

    • dual-homed

    • multihomed

    • dual-multihomed




  13. Which three network architectures have been introduced by Cisco to address the emerging technology challenges created by the evolving business models? (Choose three.)



    • Cisco Borderless

    • Cisco Enterprise Edge

    • Cisco Data Center

    • Cisco Enterprise Campus

    • Cisco Collaboration

    • Cisco Enterprise Branch




  14. Which layer of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture contains unified communications and conference software such as Cisco WebEx Meetings, WebEx Social, Cisco Jabber, and TelePresence?



    • applications and devices

    • enterprise WAN

    • services module

    • service provider edge




  15. Which Cisco technology allows diverse network devices to connect securely, reliably, and seamlessly to enterprise network resources?



    • building distribution

    • Cisco AnyConnect

    • enterprise edge

    • service provider edge




  16. What is creating a new challenge for IT departments by changing the border of the enterprise network?



    • company-owned desktops

    • access layer switching

    • tablets

    • energy costs




  17. Which network architecture functions through a combination of technologies that include wired, wireless, security, and more?



    • Cisco Enterprise Campus

    • Cisco Enterprise Branch

    • Cisco Borderless

    • Cisco Enterprise Edge




  18. Which network architecture combines individual components to provide a comprehensive solution allowing people to cooperate and contribute to the production of something?



    • Cisco Enterprise Campus Architecture

    • Cisco Enterprise Branch Architecture

    • Cisco Borderless Network Architecture

    • Cisco Collaboration Architecture




  19. Fill in the blank.
    Reducing the complexity of network design by dividing a network into smaller areas is an example of a     hierarchical       network model.รข€‹




  20. Fill in the blank. Use the abbreviation.


    Under the Cisco Enterprise Edge module, the submodule that provides remote access including authentication and IPS appliances is the    VPN             and remote access submodule.




  21. Match the layer to the corresponding device. (Not all options are used.)




  22. CCNA4_Ch1_001Match the submodule to the correct Cisco Enterprise Architecture module. (Not all options are used.)CCNA4_Ch1_002




READ MORE » CCNA 4 Chapter 1 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 4 Chapter 2 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

  1. A small company with 10 employees uses a single LAN to share information between computers. Which type of connection to the Internet would be appropriate for this company?

    • a dialup connection that is supplied by their local telephone service provider
    • Virtual Private Networks that would enable the company to connect easily and securely with employees
    • private dedicated lines through their local service provider
    • a broadband service, such as DSL, through their local service provider
  2. Which network scenario will require the use of a WAN?

    • Employee workstations need to obtain dynamically assigned IP addresses.
    • Employees need to connect to the corporate email server through a VPN while traveling.
    • Employees in the branch office need to share files with the headquarters office that is located in a separate building on the same campus network.
    • Employees need to access web pages that are hosted on the corporate web servers in the DMZ within their building.
  3. Which two devices are needed when a digital leased line is used to provide a connection between the customer and the service provider? (Choose two.)

    • access server
    • CSU
    • Layer 2 switch
    • DSU
    • dialup modem
  4. What are two advantages of packet switching over circuit switching? (Choose two.)

    • The communication costs are lower.
    • There are fewer delays in the data communications processes.
    • Multiple pairs of nodes can communicate over the same network channel.
    • A dedicated secure circuit is established between each pair of communicating nodes.
    • A connection through the service provider network is established quickly before communications start.
  5. What is a requirement of a connectionless packet-switched network?

    • Each packet has to carry only an identifier.
    • The network predetermines the route for a packet.
    • Full addressing information must be carried in each data packet.
    • A virtual circuit is created for the duration of the packet delivery.
  6. What is a long distance fiber-optic media technology that supports both SONET and SDH, and assigns incoming optical signals to specific wavelengths of light?

    • ISDN
    • MPLS
    • ATM
    • DWDM
  7. What are two common high-bandwidth fiber-optic media standards? (Choose two.)

    • ANSI
    • ATM
    • ITU
    • SDH
    • SONET
  8. What is the recommended technology to use over a public WAN infrastructure when a branch office is connected to the corporate site?

    • ATM
    • ISDN
    • municipal Wi-Fi
    • VPN
  9. What is a feature of dense wavelength-division multiplexing (DWDM) technology?

    • It replaces SONET and SDH technologies.
    • It enables bidirectional communications over one strand of fiber.
    • It provides Layer 3 support for long distance data communications.
    • It provides a 10 Gb/s multiplexed signal over analog copper telephone lines.
  10. Which WAN technology establishes a dedicated constant point-to-point connection between two sites?

    • ATM
    • ISDN
    • leased lines
    • Frame Relay
  11. Which WAN technology is cell-based and well suited to carry voice and video traffic?

    • ATM
    • ISDN
    • VSAT
    • Frame Relay
  12. Which two technologies use the PSTN network to provide an Internet connection? (Choose two.)

    • ATM
    • ISDN
    • MPLS
    • dialup
    • Frame Relay
  13. A company needs to interconnect several branch offices across a metropolitan area. The network engineer is seeking a solution that provides high-speed converged traffic, including voice, video, and data on the same network infrastructure. The company also wants easy integration to their existing LAN infrastructure in their office locations. Which technology should be recommended?

    • VSAT
    • ISDN
    • Frame Relay
    • Ethernet WAN
  14. A customer needs a WAN virtual connection that provides high-speed, dedicated bandwidth between two sites. Which type of WAN connection would best fulfill this need?

    • circuit-switched network
    • Ethernet WAN
    • MPLS
    • packet-switched network
  15. Which WAN connectivity method would be used in a remote location where there are no service provider networks?

    • cable
    • VPN
    • VSAT
    • WiMAX
  16. A home user lives within 10 miles (16 kilometers) of the Internet provider network. Which type of technology provides high-speed broadband service with wireless access for this home user?

    • 802.11
    • municipal Wi-Fi
    • DSL
    • WiMAX
  17. Which connectivity method would be best for a corporate employee who works from home two days a week, but needs secure access to internal corporate databases?

    • cable
    • DSL
    • VPN
    • WiMAX
  18. Which wireless technology provides Internet access through cellular networks?

    • satellite
    • municipal WiFi
    • LTE
    • WiMAX
  19. Which geographic scope requirement would be considered a distributed WAN scope?

    • local
    • one-to-one
    • one-to-many
    • many-to-many
    • regional
    • global
  20. A new corporation needs a data network that must meet certain requirements. The network must provide a low cost connection to sales people dispersed over a large geographical area. Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

    • public infrastructure
    • private infrastructure
    • Internet
    • dedicated
    • satellite
  21. Match the type of WAN device or service to the description. (Not all options are used.)CCNA4_Ch2_001

  22. Match the connectivity type to the description. (Not all options are used.)CCNA4_Ch2_002

READ MORE » CCNA 4 Chapter 2 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)
 
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