Showing posts with label CCNA 1 v5.02 Answers 2015. Show all posts
Showing posts with label CCNA 1 v5.02 Answers 2015. Show all posts

CCNA 1 Chapter 4 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation method used for specific types of media?

  • application
  • transport
  • data link
  • physical

2. Which statement describes signaling at the physical layer?

  • Sending the signals asynchronously means that they are transmitted without a clock signal.
  • In signaling, a 1 always represents voltage and a 0 always represents the absence of voltage.
  • Wireless encoding includes sending a series of clicks to delimit the frames.
  • Signaling is a method of converting a stream of data into a predefined code

3. What are two reasons for physical layer protocols to use frame encoding techniques? (Choose two.)

  • to reduce the number of collisions on the media
  • to distinguish data bits from control bits
  • to provide better media error correction
  • to identify where the frame starts and ends
  • to increase the media throughput

4. The throughput of a FastEthernet network is 80 Mb/s. The traffic overhead for establishing sessions, acknowledgments, and encapsulation is 15 Mb/s for the same time period. What is the goodput for this network?

  • 15 Mb/s
  • 95 Mb/s
  • 55 Mb/s
  • 65 Mb/s
  • 80 Mb/s

5. A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)

  • EMI
  • crosstalk
  • RFI?
  • signal attenuation
  • extended length of cabling

6. How is the magnetic field cancellation effect enhanced in UTP cables?

  • by increasing the thickness of the PVC sheath that encases all the wires
  • by increasing and varying the number of twists in each wire pair
  • by increasing the thickness of the copper wires
  • by decreasing the number of wires that are used to carry data

7. Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?

CCNA 1 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

 

  • The jack used is an RJ-11 connector instead of an RJ-45 connector.
  • The cable is not shielded.
  • The untwisted length of each wire is too long.
  • The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.

8. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is connected to the console port of the switch. All the other connections are made through FastEthernet links. Which types of UTP cables can be used to connect the devices??

CCNA 1 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

  • 1 – rollover, 2 – crossover, 3 – straight-through
  • 1 – rollover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – crossover
  • 1 – crossover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – rollover
  • 1 – crossover, 2 – rollover, 3 – straight-through

9. Which statement is correct about multimode fiber?

  • Multimode fiber cables carry signals from multiple connected sending devices.
  • Multimode fiber commonly uses a laser as a light source.
  • SC-SC patch cords are used with multimode fiber cables.
  • Multimode fiber has a thinner core than single-mode fiber..

10. What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling?

  • It is usually cheaper than copper cabling.
  • It is able to be installed around sharp bends.
  • It is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling.
  • It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.

11. Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?

  • The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading.
  • They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection.
  • They increase the speed at which the data can travel.
  • They allow for full-duplex connectivity.

12. A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)

  • mobility options
  • security
  • interference
  • coverage area
  • extensive cabling
  • packet collision

13. A network administrator is required to upgrade wireless access to end users in a building. To provide data rates up to 1.3 Gb/s and still be backward compatible with older devices, which wireless standard should be implemented?

  • 802.11n
  • 802.11ac
  • 802.11g
  • 802.11b

14. What is one main characteristic of the data link layer?

  • It generates the electrical or optical signals that represent the 1 and 0 on the media.
  • It converts a stream of data bits into a predefined code.
  • It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware of the physical medium to be used in the communication.
  • It accepts Layer 3 packets and decides the path by which to forward a frame to a host on a remote network.

15. As data travels on the media in a stream of 1s and 0s how does a receiving node identify the beginning and end of a frame??

  • The transmitting node inserts start and stop bits into the frame.
  • The transmitting node sends a beacon to notify that a data frame is attached.
  • The receiving node identifies the beginning of a frame by seeing a physical address.
  • The transmitting node sends an out-of-band signal to the receiver about the beginning of the frame.

16. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

  • The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
  • Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
  • Physical topologies display the IP addressing scheme of each network.
  • Logical topologies determine the media access control method used.

17. What are two characteristics of 802.11 wireless networks? (Choose two.)

  • They use CSMA/CA technology.
  • They use CSMA/CD technology.
  • They are collision-free networks.
  • Stations can transmit at any time.
  • Collisions can exist in the networks.

18. What is the purpose of the FCS field in a frame?

  • to obtain the MAC address of the sending node
  • to verify the logical address of the sending node
  • to compute the CRC header for the data field
  • to determine if errors occurred in the transmission and reception

19. Fill in the blank with a number.

10,000,000,000 b/s can also be written as        10              Gb/s.

20. Fill in the blank.

The term                   bandwidth                        indicates the capacity of a medium to carry data and it is typically measured in kilobits per second (kb/s) or megabits per second (Mb/s).?

21. Fill in the blank.

What acronym is used to reference the data link sublayer that identifies the network layer protocol encapsulated in the frame?      LLC

READ MORE » CCNA 1 Chapter 4 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 1 Chapter 5 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. Which statement is true about MAC addresses?

  • MAC addresses are implemented by software.
  • A NIC only needs a MAC address if connected to a WAN.
  • The first three bytes are used by the vendor assigned OUI.
  • The ISO is responsible for MAC addresses regulations.

2. What is a characteristic of a contention-based access method?

  • It processes more overhead than the controlled access methods do.
  • It has mechanisms to track the turns to access the media.
  • It is a nondeterministic method.
  • It scales very well under heavy media use.

3. Which two statements describe features or functions of the logical link control sublayer in Ethernet standards? (Choose two.)

  • Logical link control is implemented in software.
  • Logical link control is specified in the IEEE 802.3 standard.
  • The LLC sublayer interacts directly with the NIC driver software.
  • The data link layer uses LLC to communicate with the upper layers of the protocol suite.
  • The LLC sublayer is responsible for the placement and retrieval of frames on and off the media.

4. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

  • is used as a padding for data
  • is used for timing synchronization
  • is used to identify the source address
  • is used to identify the destination address

5. What is the Layer 2 multicast MAC address that corresponds to the Layer 3 IPv4 multicast address 224.139.34.56?

  • 00-00-00-0B-22-38
  • 01-00-5E-0B-22-38
  • 01-5E-00-0B-22-38
  • FE-80-00-0B-22-38
  • FF-FF-FF-0B-22-38

6. Which two statements are correct about MAC and IP addresses during data transmission if NAT is not involved? (Choose two.)

  • A packet that has crossed four routers has changed the destination IP address four times.
  • Destination MAC addresses will never change in a frame that goes across seven routers.
  • Destination and source MAC addresses have local significance and change every time a frame goes from one LAN to another.
  • Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain constant along the entire path to a target host.
  • Every time a frame is encapsulated with a new destination MAC address, a new destination IP address is needed.

7. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

  • If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.
  • An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.
  • When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
  • If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.
  • If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.

8. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will happen next??

  • PC2 will send an ARP reply with its MAC address.
  • RT1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/0 MAC address.?
  • RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.?
  • SW1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.?
  • SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.?

9. A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in its ARP cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC address?

  • It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the destination device.
  • It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the default gateway.
  • It will send the frame and use its own MAC address as the destination.
  • It will send the frame with a broadcast MAC address.
  • It will send a request to the DNS server for the destination MAC address.

10. What are two potential network problems that can result from ARP operation? (Choose two.)

  • Manually configuring static ARP associations could facilitate ARP poisoning or MAC address spoofing.
  • On large networks with low bandwidth, multiple ARP broadcasts could cause data communication delays.
  • Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP messages with the intent of intercepting network traffic.
  • Large numbers of ARP request broadcasts could cause the host MAC address table to overflow and prevent the host from communicating on the network.
  • Multiple ARP replies result in the switch MAC address table containing entries that match the MAC addresses of hosts that are connected to the relevant switch port.

11. A network administrator is connecting two modern switches using a straight-through cable. The switches are new and have never been configured. Which three statements are correct about the final result of the connection? (Choose three.)

  • The link between the switches will work at the fastest speed that is supported by both switches.
  • The link between switches will work as full-duplex.
  • If both switches support different speeds, they will each work at their own fastest speed.
  • The auto-MDIX feature will configure the interfaces eliminating the need for a crossover cable.
  • The connection will not be possible unless the administrator changes the cable to a crossover cable.
  • The duplex capability has to be manually configured because it cannot be negotiated.

12. A Layer 2 switch is used to switch incoming frames from a 1000BASE-T port to a port connected to a 100Base-T network. Which method of memory buffering would work best for this task?

  • port-based buffering
  • level 1 cache buffering
  • shared memory buffering
  • fixed configuration buffering

13. When would a switch record multiple entries for a single switch port in its MAC address table?

  • when a router is connected to the switch port
  • when multiple ARP broadcasts have been forwarded
  • when another switch is connected to the switch port
  • when the switch is configured for Layer 3 switching

14. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?

CCNA 1 Chapter 5 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 5 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

 

  • The switch will discard the frame.
  • The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.
  • The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.
  • The switch will forward the frame to all ports.
  • The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.

15. Which two statements describe a fixed configuration Ethernet switch? (Choose two.)

  • The switch cannot be configured with multiple VLANs.
  • An SVI cannot be configured on the switch.
  • A fixed configuration switch may be stackable.
  • The number of ports on the switch cannot be increased.
  • The port density of the switch is determined by the Cisco IOS.

16. How does adding an Ethernet line card affect the form factor of a switch?

  • by increasing the back plane switching speed
  • by expanding the port density
  • by making the switch stackable
  • by expanding the NVRAM capacity

17. A network administrator issues the following commands on a Layer 3 switch:DLS1(config)# interface f0/3

DLS1(config-if)# no switchport

DLS1(config-if)# ip address 172.16.0.1 255.255.255.0

DLS1(config-if)# no shutdown

DLS1(config-if)# endWhat is the administrator configuring?

  • a routed port
  • a switched virtual interface
  • a Cisco Express Forwarding instance
  • a trunk interface

18. Which address or combination of addresses does a Layer 3 switch use to make forwarding decisions?

  • IP address only
  • port address only
  • MAC address only
  • MAC and port addresses
  • MAC and IP addresses

19. What statement illustrates a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

  • Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
  • It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
  • Collisions can decrease network performance.
  • CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

20. Fill in the blank.

The binary number 0000 1010 can be expressed as     0A           in hexadecimal.

Match the characteristic to the forwarding method. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Chapter 5 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 5 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

 

21. Match the seven fields of an Ethernet frame to their respective contents. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Chapter 5 Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 5 Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

 

22. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instruction and then answer the question.

What destination address will PC1 include in the destination address field of the Ethernet frame that it sends to PC2?

  • 192.168.0.17
  • 192.168.0.34
  • 0030.a3e5.0401
  • 00e0.b0be.8014
  • 0007.ec35.a5c6
READ MORE » CCNA 1 Chapter 5 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration?

  • wiki
  • e-mail
  • weblog
  • instant messaging

2. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

  • regenerating data signals
  • acting as a client or a server
  • providing a channel over which messages travel
  • applying security settings to control the flow of data
  • notifying other devices when errors occur
  • serving as the source or destination of the messages

3. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

  • DSL
  • dial-up
  • satellite
  • cell modem
  • cable modem

4. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?

  • LAN
  • MAN
  • WAN
  • WLAN

5. Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this router load the IOS?  

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

  • flash memory
  • NVRAM?
  • RAM
  • ROM
  • a TFTP server?

6. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco network device?

  • a console connection
  • an AUX connection
  • a Telnet connection
  • an SSH connection

7. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

  • The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.
  • The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
  • The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.
  • The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

8. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?

  • to restart the ping process
  • to interrupt the ping process
  • to exit to a different configuration mode
  • to allow the user to complete the command

9. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?

  • It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
  • It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
  • It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
  • It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.

10. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued??

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

  • My Switch(config)#?
  • Switch(config)#?
  • MySwitch(config)#?
  • My(config)#?
  • Switch#

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

  • letmein
  • secretin
  • lineconin
  • linevtyin

12. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?

  • The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
  • The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
  • The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
  • The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which action will be successful?

  • PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1?.
  • PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.
  • PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1.
  • PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.

14. Which IPv4 address can be pinged to test the internal TCP/IP operation of a host?

  • 0.0.0.0
  • 0.0.0.1
  • 127.0.0.1
  • 192.168.1.1
  • 255.255.255.255

15. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

  • ARP
  • DHCP
  • DNS
  • FTP
  • NAT
  • PPP

16. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)

  • ARP
  • BOOTP
  • ICMP
  • IP
  • PPP

17. Which publicly available resources describe protocols, processes, and technologies for the Internet but do not give implementation details?

  • Request for Comments
  • IRTF research papers
  • protocol models
  • IEEE standards

18. Which address on a PC does not change, even if the PC is moved to a different network?

  • IP address
  • default gateway address
  • MAC address
  • logical address

19. What is the protocol that is used to discover a physical address from a known logical address and what message type does it use?

  • ARP, multicast
  • DNS, unicast
  • DNS, broadcast
  • ARP, broadcast
  • PING, multicast
  • PING, broadcast

20. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

  • The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
  • The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
  • The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
  • The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
  • A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

21. What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI model?

  • It accepts frames from the physical media.
  • It encapsulates upper layer data into frames.
  • It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.
  • It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.

22. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

  • requiring proper grounding connections
  • twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
  • wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
  • designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
  • avoiding sharp bends during installation

23. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.)

  • Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.
  • Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.
  • Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.
  • Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.
  • Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cab?les and laser technology for multimode cables.

24. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?

  • logical address
  • physical address
  • data
  • error detection

25. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

  • the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
  • the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a
  • crossover Ethernet cable connection
  • the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable
  • the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

26. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC2 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 005 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 005 (v5.02, 2015)

  • just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses
  • just the PC0 MAC address
  • PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
  • just the PC1 MAC address
  • just the PC2 MAC address?

27. How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2 switch?

  • A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs, but a Layer 2 switch does not.
  • An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of a Layer 3 switch. However, this is not supported in Layer 2 switches.
  • A Layer 3 switch maintains an IP address table instead of a MAC address table.
  • A Layer 3 switch learns the MAC addresses that are associated with each of its ports. However, a Layer 2 switch does not.

28. What is the purpose of the routing process?

  • to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network
  • to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks
  • to convert a URL name into an IP address
  • to provide secure Internet file transfer
  • to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses

29. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?

  • ARP
  • DNS
  • NAT
  • SMB
  • DHCP
  • HTTP

30. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 006 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 006 (v5.02, 2015)

  • It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.
  • It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.
  • It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.
  • It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.

31. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

  • packet switching
  • microsegmentation
  • domain name resolution
  • path selection
  • flow control

32. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose two.)

  • ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.
  • FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS?.
  • RAM is volatile and stores the running configuration.
  • NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores a full version of the IOS.
  • ROM is nonvolatile and stores bootup information.

33. In which default order will a router search for startup configuration information?

  • NVRAM, RAM, TFTP
  • NVRAM, TFTP, setup mode
  • setup mode, NVRAM, TFTP
  • TFTP, ROM, NVRAM
  • flash, ROM, setup mode

34. What happens when part of an Internet VoIP transmission is not delivered to the destination?

  • A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
  • The part of the VoIP transmission that was lost is re-sent.
  • The entire transmission is re-sent.
  • The transmission continues without the missing portion.

35. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

  • 10.172.168.1
  • 172.32.5.2
  • 192.167.10.10
  • 172.20.4.4
  • 192.168.5.254
  • 224.6.6.6

36. How many bits make up the single IPv6 hextet :10CD:?

  • 4
  • 8
  • 16
  • 32

37. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?

  • to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group
  • to enable the router as an IPv6 router
  • to permit only unicast packets on the router
  • to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group

38. Which group of IPv6 addresses cannot be allocated as a host source address??

  • FEC0::/10?
  • FDFF::/7?
  • FEBF::/10?
  • FF00::/8

39. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

  • to inform routers about network topology changes
  • to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
  • to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions
  • to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

40. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured a user workstation with the IP address and default subnet masks that are shown. Although the user can access all local LAN resources, the user cannot access any Internet sites by using either FQDN or IP addresses. Based upon the exhibit, what could account for this failure?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 007 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 007 (v5.02, 2015)

  • The DNS server addresses are incorrect.
  • The default gateway address in incorrect.
  • The wrong subnet mask was assigned to the workstation.
  • The workstation is not in the same network as the DNS servers.

41. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

  • 192.168.1.64/26
  • 192.168.1.32/27
  • 192.168.1.32/28
  • 192.168.1.64/29

42. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?

  • random static addresses to improve security
  • addresses from different subnets for redundancy
  • predictable static IP addresses for easier identification
  • dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses

43. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be changed?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 008 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 008 (v5.02, 2015)

  • Site 1
  • Site 2
  • Site 3
  • Site 4

44. Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.)

  • /62
  • /64
  • /66
  • /68
  • /70

45. A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. Which two messages will the client typically broadcast on the network? (Choose two.)

  • DHCPDISCOVER
  • DHCPOFFER
  • DHCPREQUEST
  • DHCPACK
  • DHCPNACK

46. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?

  • to require users to prove who they are
  • to determine which resources a user can access
  • to keep track of the actions of a user
  • to provide challenge and response questions

47. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?

  • exec-timeout 30
  • service password-encryption
  • banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
  • login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60

48. A particular website does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

  • ipconfig /all
  • arp -a
  • ipconfig /displaydns
  • nslookup

49. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:

R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?

When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 009 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 009 (v5.02, 2015)

  • 192.168.9.254
  • 192.168.10.1
  • 192.168.10.2
  • 192.168.11.252
  • 192.168.11.254

50. Match the IPv6 address to the IPv6 address type. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 010 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 010 (v5.02, 2015)

51. What two preconfigured settings that affect security are found on most new wireless routers? (Choose two.)

  • broadcast SSID
  • MAC filtering enabled
  • WEP encryption enabled
  • PSK authentication required
  • default administrator password

52. Which type of wireless security generates dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?

  • EAP
  • PSK
  • WEP
  • WPA

53. Fill in the blank.

TFTP                    is a best-effort, connectionless application layer protocol that is used to transfer files.

54. Which two components are necessary for a wireless client to be installed on a WLAN? (Choose two.)

  • media
  • wireless NIC
  • custom adapter
  • crossover cable
  • wireless bridge
  • wireless client software

55. Consider the following range of addresses:

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::

…

2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::

The prefix-length for the range of addresses is            /60       .

56. Match the phases to their correct stage in the router bootup process. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 011 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 011 (v5.02, 2015)

57. A host is accessing an FTP server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

  • regenerating data signals
  • acting as a client or a server
  • providing a channel over which messages travel
  • applying security settings to control the flow of data
  • notifying other devices when errors occur
  • serving as the source or destination of the messages

58. When is a dial-up connection used to connect to an ISP?

  • when a cellular telephone provides the service
  • when a high-speed connection is provided over a cable TV network
  • when a satellite dish is used
  • when a regular telephone line is used

59. On a school network, students are surfing the web, searching the library database, and attending an audio conference with their sister school in Japan. If network traffic is prioritized with QoS, how will the traffic be classified from highest priority to lowest priority?

  • audio conference, database, HTTP
  • database, HTTP, audio conference
  • audio conference, HTTP, database
  • database, audio conference, HTTP

60. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco routers run the IOS?

  • RAM
  • flash
  • NVRAM
  • disk drive

61. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

  • a console connection
  • an AUX connection
  • a Telnet connection
  • an SSH connection

62. Which keys act as a hot key combination that is used to interrupt an IOS process?

  • Ctrl-Shift-X
  • Ctrl-Shift-6
  • Ctrl-Z
  • Ctrl-C

63. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued??

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 012 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 012 (v5.02, 2015)

  • HR Switch(config)#?
  • Switch(config)#?
  • HRSwitch(config)#?
  • HR(config)#?
  • Switch#

64. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command?

  • The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
  • The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
  • The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
  • The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

65. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?

  • FastEthernet0/1
  • VLAN 1
  • vty 0
  • console 0

66. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician testing?

  • the TCP/IP stack on a network host
  • connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices
  • connectivity between a PC and the default gateway
  • connectivity between two PCs on the same network
  • physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network

67. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 013 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 013 (v5.02, 2015)

68. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?

  • switch
  • hub
  • router
  • host

69. A network technician is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical application. The technician notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

  • the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
  • the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
  • the type of traffic that is crossing the network
  • the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing
  • the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
  • the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

70. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

  • It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
  • Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
  • It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
  • It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
  • It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling

71. What are two features of a physical, star network topology? (Choose two.)

  • It is straightforward to troubleshoot.
  • End devices are connected together by a bus.
  • It is easy to add and remove end devices.
  • All end devices are connected in a chain to each other.
  • Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor.

72. A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Why does the receiving device check the FCS field in the frame?

  • to determine the physical address of the sending device
  • to verify the network layer protocol information
  • to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends
  • to check the frame for possible transmission errors
  • to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving device

73. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

  • It initiates an ARP request.
  • It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.
  • It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.
  • It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.

74. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?

  • cut-through
  • store-and-forward
  • fragment-free
  • fast-forward

75. Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination when there are multiple routes available?

  • the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network
  • the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network
  • the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network
  • the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network

76. Which two statements describe the functions or characteristics of ROM in a router? (Choose two.)

  • stores routing tables
  • allows software to be updated without replacing pluggable chips on the motherboard
  • maintains instructions for POST diagnostics
  • holds ARP cache
  • stores bootstrap program

77. Which statement describes a characteristic of the Cisco router management ports?

  • A console port is used for remote management of the router.
  • A console port is not used for packet forwarding.
  • Serial and DSL interfaces are types of management ports.
  • Each Cisco router has a LED indicator to provide information about the status of the management ports.

78. What happens when part of an Internet radio transmission is not delivered to the destination?

  • A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
  • The part of the radio transmission that was lost is re-sent.
  • The entire transmission is re-sent.
  • The transmission continues without the missing portion.

79. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?

  • 192.0.2.199
  • 198.51.100.201
  • 203.0.113.211
  • 209.165.201.223

80. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

  • 10.20.30.1
  • 172.32.5.2
  • 192.167.10.10
  • 172.30.5.3
  • 192.168.5.5
  • 224.6.6.6

81. What types of addresses make up the majority of addresses within the /8 block IPv4 bit space?

  • private addresses
  • public addresses
  • multicast addresses
  • experimental addresses

82. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com??

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 014 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 014 (v5.02, 2015)

  • 11
  • 12
  • 13
  • 14

83. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.)

  • 192.168.1.16/28
  • 192.168.1.64/27
  • 192.168.1.128/27
  • 192.168.1.96/28
  • 192.168.1.192/28

84. In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best fit a subnet containing 100 hosts?

  • /23
  • /24
  • /25
  • /26

85. Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media?

  • Transmission Control Protocol
  • Real-Time Transport Protocol
  • Secure File Transfer Protocol
  • Video over Internet Protocol

86. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?

  • to determine the active TCP connections on a PC
  • to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server
  • to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network
  • to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC

87. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the asterisk (*) in the exhibited output?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 015 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 015 (v5.02, 2015)

  • The asterisk shows which file system was used to boot the system.
  • The asterisk designates which file system is the default file system.
  • An asterisk indicates that the file system is bootable.
  • An asterisk designates that the file system has at least one file that uses that file system.

88. Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each time a client establishes a connection with the AP?

  • EAP
  • PSK
  • WEP
  • WPA

89. Fill in the blank.

Point-to-point communications where both devices can transmit and receive on the medium at the same time are known as              full-duplex           .

90. Match each characteristic to the appropriate email protocol. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 016 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 016 (v5.02, 2015)

91. A host is accessing a Telnet server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

  • regenerating data signals
  • acting as a client or a server
  • providing a channel over which messages travel
  • applying security settings to control the flow of data
  • notifying other devices when errors occur
  • serving as the source or destination of the messages

92. Refer to the exhibit. Which area would most likely be an extranet for the company network that is shown?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 017 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 017 (v5.02, 2015)

  • area A
  • area B
  • area C
  • area D

93. What is the purpose of having a converged network?

  • to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices
  • to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally
  • to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices
  • to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure

94. Three office workers are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other office workers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

  • audio conference, financial transactions, web page
  • financial transactions, web page, audio conference
  • audio conference, web page, financial transactions
  • financial transactions, audio conference, web page

95. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco switches and routers run the IOS?

  • RAM
  • flash
  • NVRAM
  • disk drive

96. A network administrator is making changes to the configuration of a router. After making the changes and verifying the results, the administrator issues the copy running-config startup-config command. What will happen after this command executes?

  • The configuration will be copied to flash.
  • The configuration will load when the router is restarted.
  • The new configuration file will replace the IOS file.
  • The changes will be lost when the router restarts.

97. What information does the loopback test provide?

  • The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.
  • The device has end-to-end connectivity.
  • DHCP is working correctly.
  • The Ethernet cable is working correctly.
  • The device has the correct IP address on the network.

98. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

  • It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.
  • It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.
  • It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.
  • It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.

99. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

  • CSMA/CD
  • priority ordering
  • CSMA/CA
  • token passing

100. What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different than the value that is in the FCS field?

  • The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame.
  • The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.
  • The switch drops the frame.
  • The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame arrived to notify the hosts of the error.

101. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

  • 0.0.0.0
  • 255.255.255.255
  • FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
  • 127.0.0.1
  • 01-00-5E-00-AA-23

102. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

  • the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
  • the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection
  • the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable
  • the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

103. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?

  • cut-through switching
  • store-and-forward switching
  • fragment-free switching
  • fast-forward switching

104. What are the two main components of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.)

  • adjacency tables
  • MAC-address tables
  • routing tables
  • ARP tables
  • forwarding information base (FIB)

105. Which statement describes the sequence of processes executed by a router when it receives a packet from a host to be delivered to a host on another network?

  • It receives the packet and forwards it directly to the destination host.
  • It de-encapsulates the packet, selects the appropriate path, and encapsulates the packet to forward it toward
  • the destination host.
  • It de-encapsulates the packet and forwards it toward the destination host.
  • It selects the path and forwards it toward the destination host.

106. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?

  • ARP
  • DNS
  • NAT
  • SMB
  • DHCP
  • HTTP

107. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has two interfaces that were configured with correct IP addresses and subnet masks. Why does the show ip route command output not display any information about the directly connected networks??

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 018 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 018 (v5.02, 2015)

  • The directly connected networks have to be created manually to be displayed in the routing table.
  • The routing table will only display information about these networks when the router receives a packet.
  • The no shutdown command was not issued on these interfaces.
  • The gateway of last resort was not configured.

108. What happens when part of an Internet television transmission is not delivered to the destination?

  • A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
  • The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.
  • The entire transmission is re-sent.
  • The transmission continues without the missing portion.

109. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

  • TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
  • TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
  • UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
  • TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
  • TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

110. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access www.cisco.com to search for certification course information. The Cisco web server sends a datagram as a reply to the request from one of the web browsers. Which information is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack in the PC to identify the destination web browser?

  • the destination IP address
  • the destination port number
  • the source IP address
  • the source port number

111. Which statement is true regarding the UDP client process during a session with a server?

  • Datagrams that arrive in a different order than that in which they were sent are not placed in order.
  • A session must be established before datagrams can be exchanged.
  • A three-way handshake takes place before the transmission of data begins.
  • Application servers have to use port numbers above 1024 in order to be UDP capable.

112. Which two components are configured via software in order for a PC to participate in a network environment? (Choose two.)

  • MAC address
  • IP address
  • kernel
  • shell
  • subnet mask

113. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

  • The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
  • A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.
  • Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.
  • Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
  • Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.
  • Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

114. Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.)

  • It eliminates most address configuration errors.
  • It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.
  • It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.
  • It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.
  • It reduces the burden on network support staff.

115. What is the subnet address for the address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?

  • 2001:DB8:BC15::0
  • 2001:DB8:BC15:A::0
  • 2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1
  • 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0

116. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)

  • compression
  • addressing
  • encryption
  • session control
  • authentication

117. What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?

  • to require users to prove who they are
  • to determine which resources a user can access
  • to keep track of the actions of a user
  • to provide challenge and response questions

118. Which type of wireless security makes use of dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?

  • EAP
  • PSK
  • WEP
  • WPA

119. Fill in the blank.

During data communications, a host may need to send a single message to a specific group of destination hosts simultaneously. This message is in the form of a         Multicast                     message.

120. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 019 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 019 (v5.02, 2015)

READ MORE » CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 1 Chapter 6 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?

  • connectionless acknowledgements
  • upper-layer connection-oriented protocols
  • Network layer IP protocols
  • Transport layer UDP protocols

2. Which IPv4 header field is responsible for defining the priority of the packet??

  • flow label
  • flags
  • differentiated services
  • traffic class

3. Why is NAT not needed in IPv6??

  • Because IPv6 has integrated security, there is no need to hide the IPv6 addresses of internal networks.?
  • Any host or user can get a public IPv6 network address because the number of available IPv6 addresses is extremely large.?
  • The problems that are induced by NAT applications are solved because the IPv6 header improves packet handling by intermediate routers.?
  • The end-to-end connectivity problems that are caused by NAT are solved because the number of routes increases with the number of nodes that are connected to the Internet.

4. What is a service provided by the Flow Label field of the IPv6 header?

  • It limits the lifetime of a packet.
  • It identifies the total length of the IPv6 packet.
  • It classifies packets for traffic congestion control.
  • It informs network devices to maintain the same path for real-time application packets.

5. How do hosts ensure that their packets are directed to the correct network destination?

  • They have to keep their own local routing table that contains a route to the loopback interface, a local network route, and a remote default route.?
  • They always direct their packets to the default gateway, which will be responsible for the packet delivery.
  • They search in their own local routing table for a route to the network destination address and pass this information to the default gateway.
  • They send a query packet to the default gateway asking for the best route.

6. Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)

  • netstat -s
  • route print
  • show ip route
  • netstat -r
  • tracert

7. During the process of forwarding traffic, what will the router do immediately after matching the destination IP address to a network on a directly connected routing table entry?

  • discard the traffic after consulting the route table
  • look up the next-hop address for the packet
  • switch the packet to the directly connected interface
  • analyze the destination IP address

8. A technician is configuring a router that is actively running on the network. Suddenly, power to the router is lost. If the technician has not saved the configuration, which two types of information will be lost? (Choose two.)

  • Cisco IOS image file
  • routing table
  • bootstrap file
  • ARP cache
  • startup configuration

9. Which two interfaces will allow access via the VTY lines to configure the router? (Choose two.)

  • aux interfaces
  • LAN interfaces
  • WAN interfaces
  • console interfaces
  • USB interfaces

10. Which two files, if found, are copied into RAM as a router with the default configuration register setting boots up? (Choose two.)

  • running configuration
  • IOS image file
  • startup configuration
  • POST diagnostics

11. When would the Cisco IOS image held in ROM be used to boot the router?

  • during a file transfer operation
  • during a normal boot process
  • when the full IOS cannot be found
  • when the running configuration directs the router to do this

12. After troubleshooting a router, the network administrator wants to save the router configuration so that it will be used automatically the next time that the router reboots. What command should be issued?

  • copy running-config flash
  • copy startup-config flash
  • copy running-config startup-config
  • reload
  • copy startup-config running-config

13. Which three commands are used to set up a password for a person who attaches a cable to a new router so that an initial configuration can be performed? (Choose three.)

  • interface fastethernet 0/0
  • line vty 0 4
  • line console 0
  • enable secret cisco
  • login
  • password cisco

14. Which statement about router interfaces is true?

  • Router LAN interfaces are not activated by default, but router WAN interfaces are.
  • Once the no shutdown command is given, a router interface is active and operational.
  • Commands that apply an IP address and subnet mask to an interface are entered in global configuration mode.
  • A configured and activated router interface must be connected to another device in order to operate.

15. Which command displays a summary chart of all router interfaces, their IP addresses, and their current operational status?

  • show ip route
  • show version
  • show interfaces
  • show ip interface brief

16. A technician is manually configuring a computer with the necessary IP parameters to communicate over the corporate network. The computer already has an IP address, a subnet mask, and a DNS server. What else has to be configured for Internet access?

  • the WINS server address
  • the default gateway address
  • the MAC address
  • the domain name of the organization

17. A computer has to send a packet to a destination host in the same LAN. How will the packet be sent?

  • he packet will be sent to the default gateway first, and then, depending on the response from the gateway, it may be sent to the destination host.
  • The packet will be sent directly to the destination host.
  • The packet will first be sent to the default gateway, and then from the default gateway it will be sent directly to the destination host.
  • The packet will be sent only to the default gateway.
CCNA 1 Chapter 6 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 6 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

18. Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank.

A packet leaving PC-1 has to traverse        3       hops to reach PC-4.?

19. Fill in the blank. In a router, ROM is the nonvolatile memory where the diagnostic software, the bootup instructions, and a limited IOS are stored.

Match the configuration mode with the command that is available in that mode. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Chapter 6 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 6 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

20. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.)

CCNA 1 Chapter 6 Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 6 Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 6 Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 6 Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

21. Match field names to the IP header where they would be found. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Chapter 6 Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 6 Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

22. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question or complete the task.

Does the router have enough RAM and flash memory to support the new IOS?

  • The router has enough RAM and flash memory for the IOS upgrade.
  • The router has enough RAM, but needs more flash memory for the IOS upgrade.
  • The router has enough flash memory, but needs more RAM for the IOS upgrade.
  • The router needs more RAM and more flash memory for the IOS upgrade.
READ MORE » CCNA 1 Chapter 6 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 1 Chapter 7 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. What is a socket?

  • the combination of the source and destination IP address and source and destination Ethernet address
  • the combination of a source IP address and port number or a destination IP address and port number
  • the combination of the source and destination sequence and acknowledgment numbers
  • the combination of the source and destination sequence numbers and port numbers

2. A host device needs to send a large video file across the network while providing data communication to other users. Which feature will allow different communication streams to occur at the same time, without having a single data stream using all available bandwidth?

  • window size
  • multiplexing
  • port numbers
  • acknowledgments

3. A host device sends a data packet to a web server via the HTTP protocol. What is used by the transport layer to pass the data stream to the proper application on the server?

  • sequence number
  • acknowledgment
  • source port number
  • destination port number

4. What is a beneficial feature of the UDP transport protocol?

  • acknowledgment of received data
  • fewer delays in transmission
  • tracking of data segments using sequence numbers
  • the ability to retransmit lost data

5. Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?

  • A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.
  • A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.
  • A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.
  • A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.

6. What is the complete range of TCP and UDP well-known ports?

  • 0 to 255
  • 0 to 1023
  • 256 – 1023
  • 1024 – 49151

7. What does a client application select for a TCP or UDP source port number?

  • a random value in the well-known port range
  • a random value in the range of the registered ports
  • a predefined value in the well-known port range
  • a predefined value in the range of the registered ports

8. Compared to UDP, what factor causes additional network overhead for TCP communication?

  • network traffic that is caused by retransmissions
  • the identification of applications based on destination port numbers
  • the encapsulation into IP packets
  • the checksum error detection

9. Which transport layer feature is used to guarantee session establishment?

  • UDP ACK flag
  • TCP 3-way handshake
  • UDP sequence number
  • TCP port number

10.Which two flags in the TCP header are used in a TCP three-way handshake to establish connectivity between two network devices? (Choose two.)

  • ACK
  • FIN
  • PSH
  • RST
  • SYN
  • URG

11. Which factor determines TCP window size?

  • the amount of data to be transmitted
  • the number of services included in the TCP segment
  • the amount of data the destination can process at one time
  • the amount of data the source is capable of sending at one time

12. During a TCP session, a destination device sends an acknowledgment number to the source device. What does the acknowledgment number represent?

  • the total number of bytes that have been received
  • one number more than the sequence number
  • the next byte that the destination expects to receive
  • the last sequence number that was sent by the source

13. A PC is downloading a large file from a server. The TCP window is 1000 bytes. The server is sending the file using 100-byte segments. How many segments will the server send before it requires an acknowledgment from the PC?

  • 1 segment
  • 10 segments
  • 100 segments
  • 1000 segments

14. Which two TCP header fields are used to confirm receipt of data?

  • FIN flag
  • SYN flag
  • checksum
  • sequence number
  • acknowledgment number

15. What happens if the first packet of a TFTP transfer is lost?

  • The client will wait indefinitely for the reply.
  • The TFTP application will retry the request if a reply is not received.
  • The next-hop router or the default gateway will provide a reply with an error code.
  • The transport layer will retry the query if a reply is not received.

16. What does a client do when it has UDP datagrams to send?

  • It just sends the datagrams.
  • It queries the server to see if it is ready to receive data.
  • It sends a simplified three-way handshake to the server.
  • It sends to the server a segment with the SYN flag set to synchronize the conversation.

17. A technician wishes to use TFTP to transfer a large file from a file server to a remote router. Which statement is correct about this scenario?

  • The file is segmented and then reassembled in the correct order by TCP.
  • The file is segmented and then reassembled in the correct order at the destination, if necessary, by the upper-layer protocol.
  • The file is not segmented, because UDP is the transport layer protocol that is used by TFTP.
  • Large files must be sent by FTP not TFTP.

18. Fill in the blank.

During a TCP session, the       SYN          flag is used by the client to request communication with the server.

19. Fill in the blank using a number. A total of        4       messages are exchanged during the TCP session termination process between the client and the server.

20. Match the characteristic to the protocol category. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Chapter 7 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 7 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

21. Match each application to its connectionless or connection-oriented protocol.

CCNA 1 Chapter 7 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 7 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

22. Refer to the exhibit. Consider a datagram that originates on the PC and that is destined for the web server. Match the IP addresses and port numbers that are in that datagram to the description. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Chapter 7 Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 7 Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 7 Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 1 Chapter 7 Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

 

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