CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. Which interface is the default location that would contain the IP address used to manage a 24-port Ethernet switch?

• VLAN 1
• Fa0/0
• Fa0/1
• interface connected to the default gateway
• VLAN 99

2. In which type of attack does a malicious node request all available IP addresses in the address pool of a DHCP server in order to prevent legitimate hosts from obtaining network access?

• CAM table overflow
• MAC address flooding
• DHCP starvation
• DHCP spoofing

3. What impact does the use of the

mdix auto

configuration command have

on an Ethernet interface on a switch?

• automatically detects duplex settings
• automatically detects interface speed
• automatically detects copper cable type
• automatically assigns the first detected MAC address to an interface

4. Which type of cable does a network administrator need to connect a PC to a switch to recover it after the Cisco IOS software fails to load?

• a coaxial cable
• a console cable
• a crossover cable
• a straight-through cable  

5. While troubleshooting a connectivity problem, a network administrator notices that a switch port status LED is alternating between green and amber. What could this LED indicate?

• The port has no link.
• The port is experiencing errors.
• The port is administratively down.
• A PC is using the wrong cable to connect to the port.
• The port has an active link with normal traffic activity.

6. A production switch is reloaded and finishes with a

Switch>

prompt. What two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)

• POST occurred normally.
• The boot process was interrupted.
• There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.
• A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.
• The switch did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.

7. Which command displays information about the auto-MDIX setting for a specific interface?

• show interfaces
• show controllers
• show processes
• show running-config

8. Refer to the exhibit. What media issue might exist on the link connected to Fa0/1 based on the show interface command?

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

• The bandwidth parameter on the interface might be too high.
• There could be an issue with a faulty NIC.
• There could be too much electrical interference and noise on the link.
• The cable attaching the host to port Fa0/1 might be too long.
• The interface might be configured as half-duplex.

9.Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections. How should the network administrator change the displayed configuration to satisfy the requirement?

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

 

• Use SSH version 1.
• Reconfigure the RSA key.
• Configure SSH on a different line.
• Modify the transport input command.

10. Which protocol or service sends broadcasts containing the Cisco IOS software version of the sending device, and the packets of which can be captured by malicious hosts on the network?

• CDP
• DHCP
• DNS
• SSH

11. Which two statements are true about using full-duplex Fast Ethernet? (Choose two.)

• Performance is improved with bidirectional data flow.
• Latency is reduced because the NIC processes frames faster.
• Nodes operate in full-duplex with unidirectional data flow.
• Performance is improved because the NIC is able to detect collisions.
• Full-duplex Fast Ethernet offers 100 percent efficiency in both directions.

12. Which method would mitigate a MAC address flooding attack?

• increasing the size of the CAM table
• configuring port security
• using ACLs to filter broadcast traffic on the switch
• increasing the speed of switch ports

13. Which two basic functions are performed by network security tools? (Choose two.)

• revealing the type of information an attacker is able to gather from monitoring network traffic
• educating employees about social engineering attacks
• simulating attacks against the production network to
• determine any existing vulnerabilities
• writing a security policy document for protecting networks
• controlling physical access to user devices

14. Which action will bring an error-disabled switch port back to an operational state?

• Remove and reconfigure port security on the interface.
• Issue the switchport mode access command on the interface.
• Clear the MAC address table on the switch.
• Issue the shutdown and then no shutdown interface commands.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which S1 switch port interface or interfaces should be configured with the ip dhcp snooping trust command if best practices are implemented?

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

 

• only the G0/1 port
• only unused ports
• only the G0/1 and G0/24 ports
• only the G0/2, G0/3, and G0/4 ports
• only the G0/1, G0/2, G0/3, and G0/4 ports

16. Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/2 has already been configured appropriately. The IP phone and PC work properly. Which switch configuration would be most appropriate for port Fa0/2 if the network administrator has the following goals?

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

• SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
  SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
• SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
  SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
• SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
  SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
  SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
• SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
  SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
  SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
  SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security violation restrict

17. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about port security from the information that is shown?

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 005 (v5.02, 2015)

• The port has been shut down.
• The port has two attached devices.
• The port violation mode is the default for any port that has port security enabled.
• The port has the maximum number of MAC addresses that is supported by a Layer 2 switch port which is configured for port security.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which event will take place if there is a port security violation on switch S1 interface Fa0/1?

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 006 (v5.02, 2015)

• A notification is sent.
• A syslog message is logged.
• Packets with unknown source addresses will be dropped.
• The interface will go into error-disabled state.

19. The network administrator enters the following commands on a Cisco switch:

Switch(config)# interface vlan1

Switch(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0

Switch(config-if)# no shutdown

What is the effect of entering these commands?

• All devices attached to this switch must be in the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet to communicate.
• The switch is able to forward frames to remote networks.
• The address of the default gateway for this LAN is 192.168.1.2/24.
• Users on the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet are able to ping the switch at IP address 192.168.1.2.

20. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)

• The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.
• Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
• The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.
• After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.
• If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.

21. Fill in the blank.

full-duplex                communication allows both ends of a connection to transmit and receive data simultaneously.

22. Fill in the blank.

When port security is enabled, a switch port uses the default violation mode of     shutdown      until specifically configured to use a different violation mode.

23. Match the step to each switch boot sequence description. (not all options are used.)

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer 007 (v5.02, 2015)

24. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Fill in the blank.

Do not use abbreviations.What is the missing command on S1?

ip address 192.168.99.2 255.255.255.0

READ MORE » CCNA 2 Chapter 2 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. Which two statements are true about VLAN implementation? (Choose two.)

• The size of the collision domain is reduced.
• The number of required switches in a network decreases.
• VLANs logically group hosts, regardless of physical location.
• The network load increases significantly because of added trunking information.
• Devices in one VLAN do not hear the broadcasts from devices in another VLAN.

2. Which three statements accurately describe VLAN types? (Choose three).

• A management VLAN is any VLAN that is configured to access management features of the switch.
• A data VLAN is used to carry VLAN management data and user-generated traffic.
• After the initial boot of an unconfigured switch, all ports are members of the default VLAN.
• An 802.1Q trunk port, with a native VLAN assigned, supports both tagged and untagged traffic.
• Voice VLANs are used to support user phone and e-mail traffic on a network.
• VLAN 1 is always used as the management VLAN.

3. A network administrator is determining the best placement of VLAN trunk links. Which two types of point-to-point connections utilize VLAN trunking? (Choose two.)

• between two switches that utilize multiple VLANs
• between a switch and a client PC
• between a switch and a server that has an 802.1Q NIC
• between a switch and a network printer
• between two switches that share a common VLAN

4. Refer to the exhibit. A frame is traveling between PC-A and PC-B through the switch. Which statement is true concerning VLAN tagging of the frame?

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

• A VLAN tag is added when the frame leaves PC-A.
• A VLAN tag is added when the frame is accepted by the switch.
• A VLAN tag is added when the frame is forwarded out the port to PC-B.
• No VLAN tag is added to the frame.

5. What is the effect of issuing a switchport access vlan 20 command on the Fa0/18 port of a switch that does not have this VLAN in the VLAN database?

• The command will have no effect on the switch.
• VLAN 20 will be created automatically.
• An error stating that VLAN 20 does not exist will be displayed and VLAN 20 is not created.
• Port Fa0/18 will be shut down.

6. Port Fa0/11 on a switch is assigned to VLAN 30. If the command no switchport access vlan 30 is entered on the Fa0/11 interface, what will happen?

• Port Fa0/11 will be shutdown.
• An error message would be displayed.
• Port Fa0/11 will be returned to VLAN 1.
• VLAN 30 will be deleted.

7. Which command is used to remove only VLAN 20 from a switch?

• delete vlan.dat
• delete flash:vlan.dat
• no vlan 20
• no switchport access vlan 20

8. Which command displays the encapsulation type, the voice VLAN ID, and the access mode VLAN for the Fa0/1 interface?

• show vlan brief
• show interfaces Fa0/1 switchport
• show mac address-table interface Fa0/1
• show interfaces trunk

9. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?

 

• Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
• Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.

10. A Cisco Catalyst switch has been added to support the use of multiple VLANs as part of an enterprise network. The network technician finds it necessary to clear all VLAN information from the switch in order to incorporate a new network design. What should the technician do to accomplish this task?

• Erase the startup configuration and reboot the switch.
• Erase the running configuration and reboot the switch.
• Delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of the switch and reboot the switch.
• Delete the IP address that is assigned to the management VLAN and reboot the switch.

11. A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with VLANs 10 and 20 across trunk port Fa0/5. What is the effect of issuing a

switchport trunk allowed vlan 30

command on Fa0/5?

• It allows VLANs 1 to 30 on Fa0/5.
• It allows VLANs 10, 20, and 30 on Fa0/5.
• It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5.
• It allows a native VLAN of 30 to be implemented on Fa0/5.

12. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?

• All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
• Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
• Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
• The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.

13. Which command should the network administrator implement to prevent the transfer of DTP frames between a Cisco switch and a non-Cisco switch?

• S1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
• S1(config-if)# switchport nonegotiate
• S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
• S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
• S1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan none

14. Under which two occasions should an administrator disable DTP while managing a local area network? (Choose two.)

• when connecting a Cisco switch to a non-Cisco switch
• when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic auto
• when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic desirable
• on links that should not be trunking
• on links that should dynamically attempt trunking

15. Refer to the exhibit. PC-A and PC-B are both in VLAN 60. PC-A is unable to communicate with PC-B. What is the problem?

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

• The native VLAN should be VLAN 60.
• The native VLAN is being pruned from the link.
• The trunk has been configured with the switchport nonegotiate command.
• The VLAN that is used by PC-A is not in the list of allowed VLANs on the trunk.

16. Refer to the exhibit. DLS1 is connected to another switch, DLS2, via a trunk link. A host that is connected to DLS1 is not able to communicate to a host that is connected to DLS2, even though they are both in VLAN 99. Which command should be added to Fa0/1 on DLS1 to correct the problem?

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

• switchport nonegotiate
• switchport mode dynamic auto
• switchport trunk native vlan 66
• switchport trunk allowed vlan add 99

17. What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN 10 when the administrator deletes VLAN 10 from the switch?

• The port becomes inactive.
• The port goes back to the default VLAN.
• The port automatically associates itself with the native VLAN.
• The port creates the VLAN again.

18. In a basic VLAN hopping attack, which switch feature do attackers take advantage of?

• an open Telnet connection
• automatic encapsulation negotiation
• forwarding of broadcasts
• the default automatic trunking configuration

19. Which switch feature ensures that no unicast, multicast, or broadcast traffic is passed between ports that are configured with this feature?

• VLAN
• PVLAN protected port
• ACL
• switch port security

20. Which two Layer 2 security best practices would help prevent VLAN hopping attacks? (Choose two.)

• Change the native VLAN number to one that is distinct from all user VLANs and is not VLAN 1.
• Change the management VLAN to a distinct VLAN that is not accessible by regular users.
• Statically configure all ports that connect to end-user host devices to be in trunk mode.
• Disable DTP autonegotiation on end-user ports.
• Use SSH for all remote management access.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 is connected to a PC. Fa0/2 is a trunk link to another switch. All other ports are unused. Which security best practice did the administrator forget to configure?

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

• Disable autonegotiation and set ports to either static access or static trunk.
• Change the native VLAN to a fixed VLAN that is distinct from all user VLANs and to a VLAN number that is not VLAN 1.
• Configure all unused ports to a ‘black-hole’ VLAN that is not used for anything on the network.
• All user ports are associated with VLANs distinct from VLAN 1 and distinct from the ‘black-hole’ VLAN.

22. Fill in the blank

Use the full command syntax.
The             show vlan           command displays the VLAN assignment for all ports as well as the existing VLANs on the switch.

23. Match the DTP mode with its function. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer 005 (v5.02, 2015)

 

24. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which PCs will receive the broadcast sent by PC-C?

• PC-A, PC-B
• PC-D, PC-E
• PC-A, PC-B, PC-E
• PC-A, PC-B, PC-D, PC-E
• PC-A, PC-B, PC-D, PC-E, PC-F

READ MORE » CCNA 2 Chapter 3 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

• It connects multiple IP networks.
• It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
• It determines the best path to send packets.
• It manages the VLAN database.
• It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

2. In order for packets to be sent to a remote destination, what three pieces of information must be configured on a host? (Choose three.)

• hostname
• IP address
• subnet mask
• default gateway
• DNS server address
• DHCP server address

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown. When the administrator checks the status of the serial interface, the interface is shown as being administratively down. What additional command must be entered on the serial interface of R1 to bring the interface up?

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

• IPv6 enable
• clockrate 128000
• end
• no shutdown

4. What is one feature that distinguishes routers from Layer 2 switches?

• Routers can be configured with IP addresses. Switches cannot.
• Switches move packets from one physical interface to another. Routers do not.
• Switches use tables of information to determine how to process data traffic. Routers do not.
• Routers support a variety of interface types. Switches typically support Ethernet interfaces.

5. Which command is used to configure an IPv6 address on a router interface so that the router will combine a manually specified network prefix with an automatically generated interface identifier?

• ipv6 enable
• ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length
• ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length eui-64
• ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length link-local

6. What type of IPv6 address is required as a minimum on IPv6 enabled interfaces?

• loopback
• unique local
• link-local
• static
• global unicast

7. What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)

• IP addresses
• MAC addresses
• Layer 1 statuses
• next-hop addresses
• interface descriptions
• speed and duplex settings

8. When a computer is pinging another computer for the first time, what type of message does it place on the network to determine the MAC address of the other device?

• an ICMP ping
• an ARP request
• an RFI (Request for Information) message
• a multicast to any Layer 3 devices that are connected to the local network

9. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 attempts to connect to File_server1 and sends an ARP request to obtain a destination MAC address. Which MAC address will PC1 receive in the ARP reply?

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

• the MAC address of S1
• the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R1
• the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R2
• the MAC address of S2
• the MAC address of File_server1

10. A packet moves from a host on one network to a device on a remote network within the same company. If NAT is not performed on the packet, which two items remain unchanged during the transfer of the packet from source to destination? (Choose two.)

• destination IP address
• source ARP table
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination MAC address
• Layer 2 header

11. What address changes as a packet travels across multiple Layer 3 Ethernet hops to its final destination?

• source IP
• destination IP
• source Layer 2 address
• destination port

12. Which two items are used by a host device when performing an ANDing operation to determine if a destination address is on the same local network? (Choose two.)

• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• source MAC address
• subnet mask
• network number

13. Refer to the exhibit. What will the router do with a packet that has a destination IP address of 192.168.12.227?

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

• Drop the packet.
• Send the packet out the Serial0/0/0 interface.
• Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.
• Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface.

14. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)

• Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
• A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances.
• The value of the administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator.
• Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
• The metric is always determined based on hop count.
• The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP.

15. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 route command on R1. Which two types of routes are displayed in the routing table? (Choose two.)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

• static route
• local host route
• directly connected network
• route that is learned through the OSPF routing protocol
• route that is learned through the EIGRP routing protocol

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 route command on R1. What two conclusions can be drawn from the routing table? (Choose two.)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 005 (v5.02, 2015)

• static route
• local host route
• directly connected network
• route that is learned through the OSPF routing protocol
• route that is learned through the EIGRP routing protocol

17. A network administrator configures the interface fa0/0 on the router R1 with the command ip address 172.16.1.254 255.255.255.0. However, when the administrator issues the command show ip route, the routing table does not show the directly connected network. What is the possible cause of the problem?

• The interface fa0/0 has not been activated.
• The configuration needs to be saved first.
• No packets with a destination network of 172.16.1.0 have been sent to R1.
• The subnet mask is incorrect for the IPv4 address.

18. A network administrator configures a router by the command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226. What is the purpose of this command?

• to forward all packets to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226
• to add a dynamic route for the destination network 0.0.0.0 to the routing table
• to forward packets destined for the network 0.0.0.0 to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226
• to provide a route to forward packets for which there is no route in the routing table

19. A network administrator is implementing dynamic routing protocols for a company. Which command can the administrator issue on a router to display the supported routing protocols?

• Router(config)# router ?
• Router(config)# service ?
• Router(config)# ip route ?
• Router(config)# ip forward-protocol ?

20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ip route command on R2. What two types of routes are installed in the routing table? (Choose two.)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 006 (v5.02, 2015)

• a configured default route
• directly connected networks
• routes that are learned through the OSPF routing protocol
• routes that are learned through the EIGRP routing protocol
• a configured static route to the network 209.165.200.224

21. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the highlighted field in the line that is displayed from the show ip route command?

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 007 (v5.02, 2015)

• It indicates that this is a default route.
• It indicates that this route was learned via EIGRP.
• It indicates that this is a directly connected route.
• It indicates that this route has been deleted from the routing table.

22. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

• It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
• It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
• It has an administrative distance of 1.
• It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

23. Fill in the blank.

When a router receives a packet, it examines the destination address of the packet and looks in the              Routing                 table to determine the best path to use to forward the packet.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Match the description with the routing table entries. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 008 (v5.02, 2015)

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer 009 (v5.02, 2015)

 

READ MORE » CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 2 Chapter 6 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. What are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

   • Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network.
   • Static routing scales well with expanding networks.
   • Static routing requires very little knowledge of the network for correct implementation.
   • Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing.
   • Static routing is relatively easy to configure for large networks.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which is the best way for PC A and PC B to successfully communicate with sites on the Internet?

   • Configure a static route from R1 to ISP and a dynamic route from ISP to R1.
   • Configure a default route from R1 to ISP and a static route from ISP to R1.
   • Configure a dynamic route from R1 to ISP and a static route from ISP to R1.
   • Configure a routing protocol between R1 and ISP and advertise all the routes.

3. What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table contains no specific route to the destination network?

   • dynamic route
   • default route
   • destination route
   • generic route

4. Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is higher than the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router?

   • to be used as a backup route
   • to load-balance the traffic
   • to act as a gateway of last resort
   • to be the priority route in the routing table

5. Which type of static route that is configured on a router uses only the exit interface?

   • recursive static route
   • directly connected static route
   • fully specified static route
   • default static route

6. Refer to the graphic. Which command would be used on router A to configure a static route to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?

   • A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.5.2
   • A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2
   • A(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2
   • A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1
   • A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.2 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.0

7. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?

   • C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
   • S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
   • C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
   • S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

8. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)

   • A(config)# no network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
   • A(config)# no ip address 10.0.0.1 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
   • A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
   • A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s0/0/0
   • A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

9. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure a default route on the Border router. Which command would the administrator use to configure a default route that will require the least amount of router processing when forwarding packets?

   • Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.133.219.5
   • Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.133.219.6
   • Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/1
   • Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0

10. Refer to the exhibit. What command would be used to configure a static route on R1 so that traffic from both LANs can reach the 2001:db8:1:4::/64 remote network?

    • ipv6 route ::/0 serial0/0/0
    • ipv6 route 2001:db8:1:4::/64 2001:db8:1:3::1
    • ipv6 route 2001:db8:1:4::/64 2001:db8:1:3::2
    • ipv6 route 2001:db8:1::/65 2001:db8:1:3::1

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which default static route command would allow R1 to potentially reach all unknown networks on the Internet?

    • R1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:32::/64 G0/0
    • R1(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 G0/0 fe80::2
    • R1(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 G0/1 fe80::2
    • R1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:32::/64 G0/1 fe80::2

12. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)

    • It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.
    • The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
    • Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
    • Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
    • All subnets in a network are the same size.
    • Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.

13. A company has several networks with the following IP address requirements:

    IP phones – 50

    PCs – 70

    IP cameras – 10

    wireless access points – 10

    network printers – 10

    network scanners – 2

    Which block of addresses would be the minimum to accommodate all of these devices if each type of device was on its own network?

    • 172.16.0.0/25
    • 172.16.0.0/24
    • 172.16.0.0/23
    • 172.16.0.0/22

14. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?

    • utilize one subnet mask throughout a hierarchical network
    • utilize multiple routing protocols within an autonomous system
    • utilize one dynamic routing protocol throughout the entire network
    • utilize multiple different subnet masks in the same IP address space
    • utilize one public IP address to translate multiple private addresses

15. What would be the best summary route for the following networks?

    10.50.168.0/23

    10.50.170.0/23

    10.50.172.0/23

    10.50.174.0/24

    • 10.50.160.0/22
    • 10.50.164.0/23
    • 10.50.168.0/16
    • 10.50.168.0/21
    • 10.50.168.0/22
    • 10.50.168.0/23

16. What is a valid summary route for IPv6 networks 2001:0DB8:ACAD:4::/64, 2001:0DB8:ACAD:5::/64, 2001:0DB8:ACAD:6::/64, and 2001:0DB8:ACAD:7::/64?

    • 2001:0DB8:ACAD:0000::/63
    • 2001:0DB8:ACAD:0000::/64
    • 2001:0DB8:ACAD:0004::/62
    • 2001:0DB8:ACAD:0004::/63

17. Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer for the company that is shown wants to use the primary ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal?

    • ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
      ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252
    • ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
      ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252 10
    • ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
      ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0
    • ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
      ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10

18. Which three IOS troubleshooting commands can help to isolate problems with a static route? (Choose three.)

    • show version
    • ping
    • tracert
    • show ip route
    • show ip interface brief
    • show arp

19. Refer to the exhibit. The small company shown uses static routing. Users on the R2 LAN have reported a problem with connectivity. What is the issue?

    • R2 needs a static route to the R1 LANs.
    • R1 and R2 must use a dynamic routing protocol.
    • R1 needs a default route to R2.
    • R1 needs a static route to the R2 LAN.
    • R2 needs a static route to the Internet.

20. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?

    • The route is removed from the table.
    • The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
    • The route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
    • The router redirects the static route to compensate for the loss of the next hop device.

21. Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. What is the name of the web server that is displayed in the webpage?

    • Main-Webserver
    • WWW-Server
    • Webserver10
    • MNSRV

22. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

    What IPv6 static route can be configured on router R1 to make a fully converged network?

    • ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/1
    • ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/0
    • ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 2001:db8:10:12::1
    • ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 2001:db8:32:77::1

READ MORE » CCNA 2 Chapter 6 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 2 Chapter 7 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. What is the purpose of the passive-interface command?

   • allows a routing protocol to forward updates out an interface that is missing its IP address
   • allows a router to send routing updates on an interface but not receive updates via that innterface
   • allows an interface to remain up without receiving keepalives
   • allows interfaces to share IP addresses
   • allows a router to receive routing updates on an interface but not send updates via that interface

2. What two tasks do dynamic routing protocols perform? (Choose two.)

   • discover hosts
   • update and maintain routing tables
   • propagate host default gateways
   • network discovery
   • assign IP addressing

3. Which route is the best match for a packet entering a router with a destination address of 10.16.0.2?

   • S 10.0.0.0/8 [1/0] via 192.168.0.2
   • S 10.16.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9
   • S 10.16.0.0/16 is directly connected, Ethernet 0/1
   • S 10.0.0.0/16 is directly connected, Ethernet 0/0

4. Which two statements describe the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose two.)

   • automatically summarizes networks at the classful boundaries
   • has an administrative distance of 100
   • calculates its metric using bandwidth
   • uses Dijkstra’s algorithm to build the SPF tree
   • used primarily as an EGP

5. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)

   • sends subnet mask information in routing updates
   • sends complete routing table update to all neighbors
   • is supported by RIP version 1
   • allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology
   • reduces the amount of address space available in an organization

6. What two actions result from entering the network 192.168.1.0 command in RIP configuration mode on a router? (Choose two.)

   • The network address 192.168.1.0 is advertised to the neighbor routers.
   • Routing updates are sent through all the interfaces belonging to 192.168.1.0.
   • The routing table is created in the RAM of the router.
   • The RIP process is stopped and all existing RIP configurations are erased.
   • The neighboring routers are sent a request for routing updates.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial output from the show ip route command, what two facts can be determined about the RIP routing protocol? (Choose two.)

   • RIP version 2 is running on this router and its RIP neighbor.
   • The metric to the network 172.16.0.0 is 120.
   • RIP version 1 is running on this router and its RIP neighbor.
   • The command no auto-summary has been used on the RIP neighbor router.
   • RIP will advertise two networks to its neighbor.

8. Which dynamic routing protocol was developed as an exterior gateway protocol to interconnect different Internet providers?

   • BGP
   • EIGRP
   • OSPF
   • RIP

9. In the context of routing protocols, what is a definition for time to convergence?

   • the amount of time a network administrator needs to configure a routing protocol in a small- to medium-sized network
   • the capability to transport data, video, and voice over the same media
   • a measure of protocol configuration complexity
   • the amount of time for the routing tables to achieve a consistent state after a topology change

10. Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is used in the network. Which path will be chosen by OSPF to send data packets from Net A to Net B

    ?

    •  R1, R2, R5, R7
    • R1, R3, R5, R7
    • R1, R3, R6, R7
    • R1, R4, R6, R7
    • R1, R3, R5, R6, R7

11. A destination route in the routing table is indicated with a code D. Which kind of route entry is this?

    • a static route
    • a route used as the default gateway
    • a network directly connected to a router interface
    • a route dynamically learned through the EIGRP routing protocol

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which interface will be the exit interface to forward a data packet with the destination IP address 172.16.0.66?

    • Serial0/0/0
    • Serial0/0/1
    • GigabitEthernet0/0
    • GigabitEthernet0/1

13. Which two events will trigger the sending of a link-state packet by a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

    • the router update timer expiring
    • a link to a neighbor router has become congested
    • a change in the topology
    • the initial startup of the routing protocol process
    • the requirement to periodically flood link-state packets to all neighbors

14. Which two requirements are necessary before a router configured with a link-state routing protocol can build and send its link-state packets? (Choose two.)

    • The router has determined the costs associated with its active links.
    • The router has built its link-state database.
    • The routing table has been refreshed.
    • The router has established its adjacencies.
    • The router has constructed an SPF tree.

15. Which two requirements are used to determine if a route can be considered as an ultimate route in a router’s routing table? (Choose two.)

    • contain subnets
    • be a default route
    • contain an exit interface
    • be a classful network entry
    • contain a next-hop IP address

16. What is different between IPv6 routing table entries compared to IPv4 routing table entries?

    • IPv6 routing tables include local route entries which IPv4 routing tables do not.
    • By design IPv6 is classless so all routes are effectively level 1 ultimate routes.
    • The selection of IPv6 routes is based on the shortest matching prefix, unlike IPv4 route selection which is based on the longest matching prefix.
    • IPv6 does not use static routes to populate the routing table as used in IPv4.

17. Which route will a router use to forward an IPv4 packet after examining its routing table for the best match with the destination address?

    • a level 1 child route
    • a level 1 parent route
    • a level 1 ultimate route
    • a level 2 supernet route
      

      
      

18. Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate.

    When configuring RIPng, the        default-information originate     command instructs the router to propagate a static default route.

19. Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate the answer.

    The command      version 2       is used in RIP router configuration mode to enable the sending of subnet masks with the routing updates.

20. Match the routing protocol to the corresponding category. (Not all options are used.)

21. Match the characteristic to the corresponding type of routing. (Not all options are used.)

22. Match the features of link-state routing protocols to their advantages and disadvantages. (Not all options are used.)

READ MORE » CCNA 2 Chapter 7 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 2 Chapter 8 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. Which OSPF component is identical in all routers in an OSPF area after convergence?

   • adjacency database
   • link-state database
   • routing table
   • SPF tree

2. Which three statements describe features of the OSPF topology table? (Choose three.

   • It is a link-state database that represents the network topology.
   • Its contents are the result of running the SPF algorithm.
   • When converged, all routers in an area have identical topology tables.
   • The topology table contains feasible successor routes.
   • The table can be viewed via the show ip ospf database command.
   • After convergence, the table only contains the lowest cost route entries for all known networks.

3. What is a function of OSPF hello packets?

   • to send specifically requested link-state records
   • to discover neighbors and build adjacencies between them
   • to ensure database synchronization between routers
   • to request specific link-state records from neighbor routers

4. Which OPSF packet contains the different types of link-state advertisements?

   • hello
   • DBD
   • LSR
   • LSU
   • LSAck

5. A router is participating in an OSPFv2 domain. What will always happen if the dead interval expires before the router receives a hello packet from an adjacent DROTHER OSPF router?

   • OSPF will run a new DR/BDR election.
   • SPF will run and determine which neighbor router is “down”.
   • A new dead interval timer of 4 times the hello interval will start.
   • OSPF will remove that neighbor from the router link-state database.

6. What are the two purposes of an OSPF router ID? (Choose two.)

   • to facilitate the establishment of network convergence
   • to uniquely identify the router within the OSPF domain
   • to facilitate the transition of the OSPF neighbor state to Full
   • to facilitate router participation in the election of the designated router
   • to enable the SPF algorithm to determine the lowest cost path
   • to remote networks

7. Which criterion is preferred by the router to choose a router ID?

   • the IP address of the highest configured loopback interface on the router
   • the IP address of the highest active interface on the router
   • the router-id rid command
   • the IP address of the highest active OSPF-enabled interface

8. Which wildcard mask would be used to advertise the 192.168.5.96/27 network as part of an OSPF configuration?

   • 0.0.0.32
   • 0.0.0.31
   • 255.255.255.224
   • 255.255.255.223

9. Which command should be used to check the OSPF process ID, the router ID, networks the router is advertising, the neighbors the router is receiving updates from, and the default administrative distance?

   • show ip protocols
   • show ip ospf neighbor
   • show ip ospf
   • show ip ospf interface

10. Which OSPFv3 function works differently from OSPFv2?

    • metric calculation
    • hello mechanism
    • OSPF packet types
    • authentication
    • election process

11. Which three statements describe the similarities between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3? (Choose three.)

    • They both are link-state protocols.
    • They both use the global address as the source address when sending OSPF messages.
    • They both share the concept of multiple areas.
    • They both support IPsec for authentication.
    • They both use the same DR/BDR election process.
    • They both have unicast routing enabled by default.

12. What does a Cisco router use automatically to create link-local addresses on serial interfaces when OSPFv3 is implemented?

    • the highest MAC address available on the router, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-48 process
    • the FE80::/10 prefix and the EUI-48 process
    • the MAC address of the serial interface, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-64 process
    • an Ethernet interface MAC address available on the router, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-64 process

13. A network administrator enters the command ipv6 router ospf 64 in global configuration mode. What is the result of this command?

    • The router will be assigned an autonomous system number of 64.
    • The router will be assigned a router ID of 64.
    • The reference bandwidth will be set to 64 Mb/s.
    • The OSPFv3 process will be assigned an ID of 64.

14. When a network engineer is configuring OSPFv3 on a router, which command would the engineer issue immediately before configuring the router ID?

    • ipv6 ospf 10 area 0
    • ipv6 router ospf 10
    • interface serial 0/0/1
    • clear ipv6 ospf process

15. Single area OSPFv3 has been enabled on a router via the ipv6 router ospf 20 command. Which command will enable this OSPFv3 process on an interface of that router?

    • ipv6 ospf 0 area 0
    • ipv6 ospf 20 area 20
    • ipv6 ospf 0 area 20
    • ipv6 ospf 20 area 0

16. Which command will verify that a router that is running OSPFv3 has formed an adjacency with other routers in its OSPF area?

    • show running-configuration
    • show ipv6 ospf neighbor
    • show ipv6 route ospf
    • show ipv6 interface brief

17. Which command will provide information specific to OSPFv3 routes in the routing table?

    • show ip route ospf
    • show ip route
    • show ipv6 route
    • show ipv6 route ospf

18. Fill in the blank.

    The election of a DR and a BDR takes place on         multiaccess       networks, such as Ethernet networks.

19. Fill in the blank.

    OSPF uses             cost                  as a metric.

20. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

    To quickly verify OSPFv3 configuration information including the OSPF process ID, the router ID, and the interfaces enabled for OSPFv3, you need to issue the command     show ipv6 protocols        .

21. Match the information to the command that is used to obtain the information. (Not all options are used.)

    • 

22. By order of precedence, match the selection of router ID for an OSPF-enabled router to the possible router ID options. (Not all options are used.)

    • 

23. Match the description to the term. (Not all options are used.)

    • 

24. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then complete the task.

    What message is displayed on www.ciscoville.com?

    • Finished!
    • Completion!
    • Success!
    • Converged!

READ MORE » CCNA 2 Chapter 8 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 2 Chapter 9 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. What two functions describe uses of an access control list? (Choose two.)

   • ACLs assist the router in determining the best path to a destination.
   • Standard ACLs can restrict access to specific applications and ports.
   • ACLs provide a basic level of security for network access.
   • ACLs can permit or deny traffic based upon the MAC address originating on the router.
   • ACLs can control which areas a host can access on a network.

2. Which two characteristics are shared by both standard and extended ACLs? (Choose two.)

   • Both kinds of ACLs can filter based on protocol type.
   • Both can permit or deny specific services by port number.
   • Both include an implicit deny as a final ACE.
   • Both filter packets for a specific destination host IP address.
   • Both can be created by using either a descriptive name or number.

3. Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?

   • ey are configured in the interface configuration mode.
   • They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.
   • They can be created with a number but not with a name.
   • They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.

4. A network administrator needs to configure a standard ACL so that only the workstation of the administrator with the IP address 192.168.15.23 can access the virtual terminal of the main router. Which two configuration commands can achieve the task? (Choose two.)

   • Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit host 192.168.15.23
   • Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.0
   • Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.255
   • Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.0
   • Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.255

5. Which IPv4 address range covers all IP addresses that match the ACL filter specified by 172.16.2.0 with wildcard mask 0.0.1.255?

   • 172.16.2.0 to 172.16.2.255
   • 172.16.2.1 to 172.16.3.254
   • 172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255
   • 172.16.2.1 to 172.16.255.255

6. If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it?

   • 4
   • 6
   • 8
   • 12
   • 16

7. Which three statements are generally considered to be best practices in the placement of ACLs? (Choose three.)

   • Place standard ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.
   • Place extended ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.
   • Filter unwanted traffic before it travels onto a low-bandwidth link.
   • Place extended ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.
   • Place standard ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.
   • For every inbound ACL placed on an interface, there should be a matching outbound ACL.

8. Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network?

   • Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.
   • Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 15.
   • Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.
   • Add a deny any any ACE to access-list 1.

9. An administrator has configured an access list on R1 to allow SSH administrative access from host 172.16.1.100. Which command correctly applies the ACL?

   • R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 in
   • R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 out
   • R1(config-line)# access-class 1 in
   • R1(config-line)# access-class 1 out

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator that has the IP address of 10.0.70.23/25 needs to have access to the corporate FTP server (10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a web server that is accessible to all internal employees on networks within the 10.x.x.x address. No other traffic should be allowed to this server. Which extended ACL would be used to filter this traffic, and how would this ACL be applied? (Choose two.)

    • access-list 105 permit ip host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5

      access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq www

      access-list 105 permit ip any any

    • access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.54.5 any eq www
      access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
      access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
    • access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
      access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
      access-list 105 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 10.0.54.5 eq www
      access-list 105 deny ip any host 10.0.54.5
      access-list 105 permit ip any any
    • R2(config)# interface gi0/0
      R2(config-if)# ip access-group 105 in
    • R1(config)# interface gi0/0
      R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out
    • R1(config)# interface s0/0/0
      R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out

11. Consider the following access list that allows IP phone configuration file transfers from a particular host to a TFTP server:

    R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 range 1024 5000

    R1(config)# access-list 105 deny ip any any

    R1(config)# interface gi0/0

    R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out

    Which method would allow the network administrator to modify the ACL and include FTP transfers from any source IP address?

    • R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
      R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
    • R1(config)# interface gi0/0
      R1(config-if)# no ip access-group 105 out
      R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
      R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
      R1(config)# interface gi0/0
      R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out
    • R1(config)# interface gi0/0
      R1(config-if)# no ip access-group 105 out
      R1(config)# no access-list 105
      R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 range 1024 5000
      R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
      R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
      R1(config)# access-list 105 deny ip any any
      R1(config)# interface gi0/0
      R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out
    • R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 range 1024 5000
      R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
      R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
      R1(config)# access-list 105 deny ip any any

12. Which statement describes a difference between the operation of inbound and outbound ACLs?

    • In contrast to outbound ALCs, inbound ACLs can be used to filter packets with multiple criteria.
    • Inbound ACLs can be used in both routers and switches but outbound ACLs can be used only on routers.
    • Inbound ACLs are processed before the packets are routed while outbound ACLs are processed after the routing is completed.
    • On a network interface, more than one inbound ACL can be configured but only one outbound ACL can be configured.

13. Which feature is unique to IPv6 ACLs when compared to those of IPv4 ACLs?

    • the use of wildcard masks
    • an implicit deny any any ACE
    • the use of named ACL entries
    • an implicit permit of neighbor discovery packets

14. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

    • An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACE.
    • A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the ACE that is matched.
    • A packet that has been denied by one ACE can be permitted by a subsequent ACE.
    • A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACE will be forwarded by default.
    • Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACE list.
    • Each packet is compared to the conditions of every ACE in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

15. Which three implicit access control entries are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL? (Choose three.)

    • deny ip any any
    • deny ipv6 any any
    • permit ipv6 any any
    • deny icmp any any
    • permit icmp any any nd-ns
    • permit icmp any any nd-na

16. What is the only type of ACL available for IPv6?

    • named standard
    • named extended
    • numbered standard
    • numbered extended

17. Which IPv6 ACL command entry will permit traffic from any host to an SMTP server on network 2001:DB8:10:10::/64?

    • permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 25
    • permit tcp host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 any eq 25
    • permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 23
    • permit tcp host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 any eq 23

18. Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 access list LIMITED_ACCESS is applied on the S0/0/0 interface of R1 in the inbound direction. Which IPv6 packets from the ISP will be dropped by the ACL on R1?

    • HTTPS packets to PC1
    • ICMPv6 packets that are destined to PC1
    • packets that are destined to PC1 on port 80
    • neighbor advertisements that are received from the ISP router

19. Match each statement with the example subnet and wildcard that it describes. (Not all options are used.)

20. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

    Why is the ACL not working?

    • The interface has not been enabled.
    • The ACL is applied in the wrong direction.
    • The ACL is missing a deny ip any any ACE.
    • The ACL is applied to the wrong interface.
    • The access-list 105 command or commands are incorrect.

READ MORE » CCNA 2 Chapter 9 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 2 Chapter 10 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. Which DHCPv4 message will a client send to accept an IPv4 address that is offered by a DHCP server?

   • unicast DHCPACK
   • broadcast DHCPACK
   • unicast DHCPREQUEST
   • broadcast DHCPREQUEST

2. A company uses DHCP servers to dynamically assign IPv4 addresses to employee workstations. The address lease duration is set as 5 days. An employee returns to the office after an absence of one week. When the employee boots the workstation, it sends a message to obtain an IP address. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will the message contain?

   • FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and 255.255.255.255
   • both MAC and IPv4 addresses of the DHCP server
   • MAC address of the DHCP server and 255.255.255.255
   • FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and IPv4 address of the DHCP server

3. Which is a DHCPv4 address allocation method that assigns IPv4 addresses for a limited lease period?

   • manual allocation
   • pre-allocation
   • automatic allocation
   • dynamic allocation

4. What is the reason why the DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast during the DHCPv4 process?

   • to notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased
   • to notify other hosts not to request the same IP address
   • for hosts on other subnets to receive the information
   • for routers to fill their routing tables with this new information

5. Which set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment?

   • ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
     ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
     ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
     network 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0
     ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1
   • ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
     ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
     ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
     network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
     default-router 192.168.100.1
   • dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
     ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
     ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
     network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
     default-router 192.168.101.1
   • ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
     ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
     ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
     ip network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
     ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

6. An administrator issues the commands:

   Router(config)# interface g0/1

   Router(config-if)# ip address dhcp

   What is the administrator trying to achieve?

    

   • configuring the router to act as a DHCPv4 server
   • configuring the router to obtain IP parameters from a DHCPv4 server
   • configuring the router to act as a relay agent
   • configuring the router to resolve IP address conflicts

7. Under which two circumstances would a router usually be configured as a DHCPv4 client? (Choose two.)

   • The router is intended to be used as a SOHO gateway.
   • The administrator needs the router to act as a relay agent.
   • The router is meant to provide IP addresses to the hosts.
   • This is an ISP requirement.
   • The router has a fixed IP address.

8. A network engineer is troubleshooting hosts on a LAN that are not being assigned an IPv4 address from a DHCP server after a new Ethernet switch has been installed on the LAN. The configuration of the DHCP server has been confirmed as correct and the clients have network connectivity to other networks if a static IP address is configured on each one. What step should the engineer take next to solve the issue?

   • Issue the ipconfig/release command on each client.
   • Issue the show ip dhcp binding command on the switch.
   • Confirm that ports on the Layer 2 LAN switch are configured as edge ports.
   • Issue the show interface command on the router to confirm that the LAN gateway is operational.

9. A host on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN is not being assigned an IPv4 address by an enterprise DHCP server with the address 10.10.200.10/24. What is the best way for the network engineer to resolve this problem?

   • Issue the command ip helper-address 10.10.200.10 on the router interface that is the 10.10.100.0/24 gateway.
   • Issue the command default-router 10.10.200.10 at the DHCP configuration prompt on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN gateway router.
   • Issue the command ip helper-address 10.10.100.0 on the router interface that is the 10.10.200.0/24 gateway.
   • Issue the command network 10.10.200.0 255.255.255.0 at the DHCP configuration prompt on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN gateway router.

10. A company uses the method SLAAC to configure IPv6 addresses for the workstations of the employees. A network administrator configured the IPv6 address on the LAN interface of the router. The interface status is UP. However, the workstations on the LAN segment did not obtain the correct prefix and prefix length. What else should be configured on the router that is attached to the LAN segment for the workstations to obtain the information?​

    • R1(config-if)# ipv6 enable
    • R1(config)# ipv6 unicast-routing
    • R1(config-if)# ipv6 nd other-config-flag
    • R1(config)# ipv6 dhcp pool <name of the pool>

11. A company uses the SLAAC method to configure IPv6 addresses for the employee workstations. Which address will a client use as its default gateway?​

    • the all-routers multicast address
    • the link-local address of the router interface that is attached to the network
    • the unique local address of the router interface that is attached to the network
    • the global unicast address of the router interface that is attached to the network

12. A network administrator configures a router to send RA messages with M flag as 0 and O flag as 1. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration when a PC tries to configure its IPv6 address?

    • It should contact a DHCPv6 server for all the information that it needs.
    • It should use the information that is contained in the RA message exclusively.
    • It should use the information that is contained in the RA message and contact a DHCPv6 server for additional information.
    • It should contact a DHCPv6 server for the prefix, the prefix-length information, and an interface ID that is both random and unique.

13. A company implements the stateless DHCPv6 method for configuring IPv6 addresses on employee workstations. After a workstation receives messages from multiple DHCPv6 servers to indicate their availability for DHCPv6 service, which message does it send to a server for configuration information?

    • DHCPv6 SOLICIT
    • DHCPv6 REQUEST
    • DHCPv6 ADVERTISE
    • DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST

14. An administrator wants to configure hosts to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves by the use of Router Advertisement messages, but also to obtain the DNS server address from a DHCPv6 server. Which address assignment method should be configured?

    • SLAAC
    • stateless DHCPv6
    • stateful DHCPv6
    • RA and EUI-64

15. Which protocol supports Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) for dynamic assignment of IPv6 addresses to a host?

    • ARPv6
    • DHCPv6
    • ICMPv6
    • UDP

16. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what kind of IPv6 addressing is being configured?

    • SLAAC
    • stateful DHCPv6
    • stateless DHCPv6
    • static link-local

17. A network administrator is implementing DHCPv6 for the company. The administrator configures a router to send RA messages with M flag as 1 by using the interface command ipv6 nd managed-config-flag. What effect will this configuration have on the operation of the clients?

    • Clients must use the information that is contained in RA messages.
    • Clients must use all configuration information that is provided by a DHCPv6 server.
    • Clients must use the prefix and prefix length that are provided by a DHCPv6 server and generate a random interface ID.
    • Clients must use the prefix and prefix length that are provided by RA messages and obtain additional information from a DHCPv6 server.

18. Refer to the exhibit. What should be done to allow PC-A to receive an IPv6 address from the DHCPv6 server?

    • Add the ipv6 dhcp relay command to interface Fa0/0.
    • Configure the ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command on interface Fa0/1.
    • Change the ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command to ipv6 nd other-config-flag.
    • Add the IPv6 address 2001:DB8:1234:5678::10/64 to the interface configuration of the DHCPv6 server.

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is implementing stateful DHCPv6 operation for the company. However, the clients are not using the prefix and prefix-length information that is configured in the DHCP pool. The administrator issues a show ipv6 interface command. What could be the cause of the problem?

    • No virtual link-local address is configured.
    • The Duplicate Address Detection feature is disabled.
    • The router is configured for SLAAC DHCPv6 operation.
    • The router is configured for stateless DHCPv6 operation.

20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is implementing the stateless DHCPv6 operation for the company. Clients are configuring IPv6 addresses as expected. However, the clients are not getting the DNS server address and the domain name information configured in the DHCP pool. What could be the cause of the problem?

    • The GigabitEthernet interface is not activated.
    • The router is configured for SLAAC DHCPv6 operation.
    • The DNS server address is not on the same network as the clients are on.
    • The clients cannot communicate with the DHCPv6 server, evidenced by the number of active clients being 0.

21. Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate.

    Type a command to exclude the first fifteen useable IP addresses from a DHCPv4 address pool of the network 10.0.15.0/24.

    Router(config)# ip dhcp

    excluded-address 10.0.15.1 10.0.15.15

22. Order the steps of configuring a router as a DHCPv4 server. (Not all options are used.)

23. Match the descriptions to the corresponding DHCPv6 server type. (Not all options are used.)

24. Open the PT Activity. Perform the  tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

    How many IP addresses has the DHCP server leased and what is the number of DHCP pools configured? (Choose two.)

    • three leases
    • six pools
    • five leases
    • one pool
    • two pools
    • seven leases

READ MORE » CCNA 2 Chapter 10 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)