Showing posts with label CCNA 3 v5.02 Answers 2015. Show all posts
Showing posts with label CCNA 3 v5.02 Answers 2015. Show all posts

CCNA 3 Chapter 1 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

  1. Which two features of enterprise class equipment assists an enterprise network in maintaining 99.999 percent up-time? (Choose two.)

    • failover capabilities
    • collapsed core
    • redundant power supplies
    • failure domains
    • services module

  2. Refer to the exhibit. Which devices exist in the failure domain when switch S3 loses power?CCNA3_Ch1_01

    • S4 and PC_2
    • PC_3 and AP_2
    • AP_2 and AP_1
    • PC_3 and PC_2
    • S1 and S4

  3. Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network?

    • the use of a collapsed core design
    • the use of the building switch block approach
    • the installation of redundant power supplies
    • the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic
    • volume

  4. How can an enterprise network be designed to optimize bandwidth?

    • by installing devices with failover capabilities
    • by limiting the size of failure domains
    • by deploying a collapsed core model
    • by organizing the network to control traffic patterns

  5. Which technology is required when switched networks are designed to include redundant links?

    • link aggregation
    • Spanning Tree Protocol
    • virtual private networks
    • virtual LANs

  6. A network administrator is planning redundant devices and cabling in a switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will implementing the Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design?

    • Multiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single EtherChannel interface.
    • Redundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2 loops.
    • Network access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless devices.
    • Faster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.

  7. What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)

    • increased flexibility
    • decreased number of critical points of failure
    • reduced costs
    • increased bandwidth availability
    • increased network management options

  8. As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?

    • providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
    • grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches
    • grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
    • providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure

  9. Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Meraki switches?

    • They promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and transport flexibility.
    • They are cloud-managed access switches that enable virtual stacking of switches.
    • They are campus LAN switches that perform the same functions as Cisco 2960 switches.
    • They are service provider switches that aggregate traffic at the edge of the network.

  10. In which situation would a network administrator install a Cisco Nexus Series or Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switch to promote infrastructure scalability?

    • to enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed access
    • on a service provider network to promote integrated security, and simplified management
    • on a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility
    • on a campus LAN network as access layer switches

  11. Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?

    • They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions prior to 15.x.
    • They are best used as distribution layer switches.
    • They are modular switches.
    • New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through.

  12. A network engineer is reviewing a network design that uses a fixed configuration enterprise router that supports both LAN and WAN connections. However, the engineer realizes that the router does not have enough interfaces to support growth and network expansion. Which type of device should be used as a​​ replacement?

    • a Layer 3 switch
    • a modular router
    • a PoE device
    • another fixed configuration router

  13. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

    • It connects multiple IP networks.
    • It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
    • It determines the best path to send packets.
    • It manages the VLAN database.
    • It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

  14. Which two requirements must always be met to use in-band management to configure a network device? (Choose two.)

    • a direct connection to the console port
    • a direct connection to the auxiliary port
    • a terminal emulation client
    • at least one network interface that is connected and operational
    • Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the device

  15. Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors command on a router?

    • to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
    • to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
    • to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
    • to display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices

  16. Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)

    • show flash
    • show NVRAM
    • show startup-config
    • show running-config
    • show version

  17. What is a characteristic of in-band device management?

    • It uses a terminal emulation client.
    • It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.
    • It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
    • It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network connection.

  18. Mach the purpose to the related configuration item. (Not all options are used.)CCNA3_Ch1_001

READ MORE » CCNA 3 Chapter 1 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 3 Chapter 2 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

  1. Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct network operation? (Choose two.)

    • static default routes
    • implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts
    • redundant links between Layer 2 switches
    • link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes
    • removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches

  2. What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?

    • Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.
    • The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.
    • Routers continually forward packets to other routers.
    • A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.

  3. What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?

    • Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.
    • New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.
    • CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.
    • ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.

  4. What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a BPDU?

    • MAC address
    • VLAN ID
    • IP address
    • port ID

  5. Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?

    • port ID
    • IP address
    • extended system ID
    • MAC address
    • bridge priority
    • cost

  6. Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be the root switch?

    • spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0
    • spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440
    • spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary
    • spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096

  7. Which protocol provides up to 16 instances of RSTP, combines many VLANs with the same physical and logical topology into a common RSTP instance, and provides support for PortFast, BPDU guard, BPDU filter, root guard, and loop guard?

    • STP
    • Rapid PVST+
    • PVST+
    • MST

  8. Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.)

    • STP
    • Rapid PVST+
    • PVST+
    • MSTP
    • RSTP

  9. What is an advantage of PVST+?

    • PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
    • PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of STP that use CST.
    • PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge.
    • PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.

  10. In which two port states does a switch learn MAC addresses and process BPDUs in a PVST network? (Choose two.)

    • blocking
    • disabled
    • forwarding
    • learning
    • listening

  11. If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when electing the root bridge?

    • lowest IP address
    • lowest MAC address
    • highest IP address
    • highest MAC address

  12. Which RSTP ports are connected to end devices?

    • trunk ports
    • designated ports
    • root ports
    • edge ports

  13. A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch interfaces?

    • Link types are determined automatically.
    • Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.
    • Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.
    • Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN.

  14. Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for PortFast?

    • listening
    • learning
    • forwarding
    • blocking

  15. To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)

    • The root bridge BID.
    • The role of the ports in all VLANs.
    • The status of native VLAN ports.
    • The number of broadcasts received on each root port.
    • The IP address of the management VLAN interface.

  16. What is the purpose of HSRP?

    • It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.
    • It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.
    • It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.
    • It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.

  17. Which nonproprietary protocol provides router redundancy for a group of routers which support IPv4 LANs?

    • HSRP
    • VRRPv2
    • GLBP
    • SLB

  18. Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol information is being displayed in the output?CCNA3_Ch3_01

    • FHRP
    • GLBP
    • HSRP
    • VRRP

  19. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting host connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which IPv4 gateway address should be configured on the host?CCNA3_Ch3_02

    • 192.168.2.0
    • 192.168.2.1
    • 192.168.2.2
    • 192.168.2.100

  20. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
    The spanning-tree       mode rapid-pvst             global configuration command is used to enable Rapid PVST+.

  21. Fill in the blank.

    In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single       virtual              router.

  22. Match the step number to the sequence of stages that occur during the HSRP failover process. (Not all options are used.)CCNA3_Ch2_001

  23. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

    Which switch is the root bridge?​

    • Switch_1
    • Switch_2
    • Switch_3
    • Switch_4
READ MORE » CCNA 3 Chapter 2 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 3 Chapter 3 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 3 Chapter 3 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%), CCNA 3 Chapter 3 Exam Answer, CCNA 3 Chapter 3, CCNA 3 Chapter 3 v5, CCNA 3 Chapter 3 100, CCNA 3 Chapter 3 2015


  1. Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology would allow each access layer switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth between each Layer 2 switch and the Layer 3 switch?CCNA3_Ch3_03



    • HSRP

    • PortFast

    • trunking

    • EtherChannel




  2. What is the most cost-effective method of solving interface congestion that is caused by a high level of traffic between two switches?



    • increase uplink speed

    • add more VLANs to reduce broadcast domains

    • aggregate ports by using EtherChannel

    • insert a router between the switches




  3. Which two load balancing methods can be implemented with EtherChannel technology? (Choose two.)



    • destination MAC to destination IP

    • destination IP to destination MAC

    • source MAC to destination MAC

    • source IP to destination IP

    • destination MAC to source MAC

    • destination IP to source IP




  4. Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?



    • EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.

    • PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.

    • A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.

    • EtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.




  5. What is an advantage of using LACP?



    • increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices

    • decreases the chance of a spanning-tree loop

    • allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links

    • provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation

    • decreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch for EtherChannel




  6. Which statement is true regarding the use of PAgP to create EtherChannels?



    • It requires full duplex.

    • It is Cisco proprietary.

    • It requires more physical links than LACP does.

    • It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.

    • It mandates that an even number of ports (2, 4, 6, etc.) be used for aggregation.




  7. Which two protocols are link aggregation protocols? (Choose two.)



    • 802.3ad

    • PAgP

    • STP

    • EtherChannel

    • RSTP




  8. Which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?



    • switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.

    • switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.​

    • switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.​

    • switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.​




  9. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator tried to create an EtherChannel between S1 and the other two switches via the commands that are shown, but was unsuccessful. What is the problem?CCNA3_Ch3_01



    • Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.​

    • Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Layer 3 switches.​

    • Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches through the same EtherChannel link.

    • Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches, but only to two different devices like an EtherChannel-enabled server and a switch.​




  10. When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP so that it initiates the EtherChannel negotiation?



    • active

    • auto

    • desirable

    • passive




  11. When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another device?



    • active

    • auto

    • desirable

    • passive




  12. As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?



    • providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic

    • grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches

    • grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address

    • providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure




  13. Refer to the exhibit. An EtherChannel was configured between switches S1 and S2, but the interfaces do not form an EtherChannel. What is the problem?CCNA3_Ch3_02



    • The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.

    • The switch ports were not configured with speed and duplex mode.

    • The switch ports have to be configured as access ports with each port having a VLAN assigned.​

    • The EtherChannel was not configured with the same allowed range of VLANs on each interface.




  14. Which command will initiate EtherChannel interface configuration mode?



    • channel-group group-identifier

    • interface port-channel interface-identifier

    • interface interface-identifier

    • interface range interface-identifier




  15. What is a best practice to use before beginning an EtherChannel implementation?



    • Assign affected interfaces to VLAN 1.

    • Assign affected interfaces to the management VLAN.

    • Shut down each of the affected interfaces.

    • Enable each of the affected interfaces.

    • Assign affected interfaces to an unused VLAN.




  16. Which three options must match in order to establish an EtherChannel between two directly connected switches? (Choose three.)



    • port numbers that are used for the EtherChannel

    • VLAN memberships of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel

    • domain names on the switches

    • speed of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel

    • duplex settings of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel

    • port security settings on the interfaces that used for EtherChannel




  17. An EtherChannel link using LACP was formed between two switches, S1 and S2. While verifying the configuration, which mode combination could be utilized on both switches?​



    • S1-on and S2-passive

    • S1-passive and S2-passive​

    • S1-on and S2-active​

    • S1-passive and S2-active




  18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided that an EtherChannel between ports 0/1 and 0/2 on switches S1 and S2 would help performance. After making the configuration, the administrator notices no performance gain. Based on the output that is shown, what two possible assumptions could a network administrator make? (Choose two.)CCNA3_Ch3_04



    • The EtherChannel bundle is working.

    • The EtherChannel bundle is not working.

    • One of the ports on S2 was not configured correctly.

    • Switch S2 did not use a compatible EtherChannel mode.

    • LACP and PAgP were both used to form the EtherChannel.

    • Switch S2 must be configured so that the maximum number of port channels is increased.




  19. Match the description to the correct command. (Not all options are used.)CCNA3_Ch3_001




  20. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.


    What are two reasons why the ping messages that are issued from Laptop0 towards Laptop1 are failing? (Choose two.)



    • The channel group mode is not set correctly on the switches.

    • The wrong cable types are connecting the two switches.

    • The interface VLAN 1 is shut down on both switches.

    • The channel group should be configured as a trunk on each switch.

    • The two interfaces on each of the switches belong to different VLANs.




READ MORE » CCNA 3 Chapter 3 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 3 Chapter 4 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 3 Chapter 4 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%), CCNA 3 Chapter 4 Exam Answer, CCNA 3 Chapter 4, CCNA 3 Chapter 4 v5, CCNA 3 Chapter 4 100, CCNA 3 Chapter 4 2015


  1. Which organization certifies vendors for adherence to the 802.11 standards to improve interoperability of 802.11 products?



    • FCC

    • IEEE

    • ITU-R

    • Wi-Fi Alliance




  2. Which two roles are typically performed by a wireless router that is used in a home or small business? (Choose two.)



    • repeater

    • access point

    • WLAN controller

    • Ethernet switch

    • RADIUS authentication server




  3. What type of wireless antenna is best suited for providing coverage in large open spaces, such as hallways or large conference rooms?



    • omnidirectional

    • directional

    • Yagi

    • dish




  4. Which feature of 802.11n wireless access points allows them to transmit data at faster speeds than previous versions of 802.11 Wi-Fi standards did?



    • SPS

    • WPS

    • MIMO

    • MITM




  5. What is a difference between Cisco APs that operate in a home environment and Cisco APs that operate in a corporate environment?



    • Autonomous APs are used only in the home environment, and they incorporate the functions of a router, switch, and AP into one device.​

    • Controller-based APs are used in the corporate environment, and they are server-dependent devices that require an initial configuration to operate.

    • Cisco corporate APs do not support PoE.

    • Some corporate AP models can operate in either autonomous mode or controller-based mode.




  6. Which type of wireless topology is created when two or more Basic Service Sets are interconnected by Ethernet?



    • IBISS

    • BSS

    • WiFi Direct

    • ESS

    • ad hoc WLAN




  7. Which type of management frame may regularly be broadcast by an AP?



    • beacon

    • probe request

    • authentication

    • probe response




  8. Which statement defines the control frame operation between two stations?



    • A station sends an RTS frame as the first step in a three-way handshake that is required before sending data frames.

    • A station responds to an RTS frame with an ACK frame, thus providing permission for the requesting station to send a data frame.​

    • If the sending station does not receive an ACK frame within a predetermined period of time, the sending station will drop the connection.​

    • After receiving a data frame, the receiving station will send an ACK frame to the sending station if no errors are found.​




  9. A student uses a laptop to upload an assignment to a file server. Which wireless frame type did the laptop send to locate and associate with the campus access point?



    • beacon frame

    • control frame

    • data frame

    • management frame




  10. A student uses a laptop to upload an assignment to a file server. Which wireless frame type did the laptop send to locate and associate with the campus access point?



    • beacon frame

    • control frame

    • data frame

    • management frame




  11. During which stage of establishing connectivity between a WLAN client and an AP does the client learn the MAC address of the AP?



    • discovery

    • probing

    • association

    • encryption

    • authentication




  12. For which discovery mode will an AP generate the most traffic on a WLAN?



    • passive mode

    • open mode

    • mixed mode

    • active mode




  13. What is an advantage of SSID cloaking?​



    • It provides free Internet access in public locations where knowing the SSID is of no concern.

    • Clients will have to manually identify the SSID to connect to the network.​

    • SSIDs are very difficult to discover because APs do not broadcast them.​

    • It is the best way to secure a wireless network.




  14. If three 802.11b access points need to be deployed in close proximity, which three frequency channels should be used? (Choose three.)



    • 1

    • 3

    • 5

    • 6

    • 8

    • 11




  15. Which three Wi-Fi standards operate in the 2.4GHz range of frequencies? (Choose three.)



    • 802.11a

    • 802.11b

    • 802.11g

    • 802.11n

    • 802.11ac




  16. Which security mode is the least secure choice when a home wireless router is configured?



    • WPA

    • WPA2

    • WEP

    • WPA2-Personal




  17. A administrator wishes to extend the range of the existing IEEE 802.11n network without changing the AP. What can the administrator do to accomplish this?



    • Upgrade the firmware on the AP.

    • Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band.

    • Deploy a Wi-Fi Range Extender.

    • Change to WPA2 authentication.




  18. A company has recently implemented an 802.11n wireless network. Some users are complaining that the wireless network is too slow. Which solution is the best method to enhance the performance of the wireless network?



    • Replace the wireless NICs on the computers that are experiencing slow connections.

    • Split the traffic between the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands.

    • Disable DHCP on the access point and assign static addresses to the wireless clients.

    • Upgrade the firmware on the wireless access point.




  19. An employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a cell phone. The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a wireless access point that will allow new employees to connect to the company network. Which type of security threat best describes this situation?



    • cracking

    • denial of service

    • rogue access point

    • spoofing




  20. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.


    Ad hoc wireless topologies sometimes can use a feature called    tethering    to enable a smartphone to create a personal hotspot.




  21. Match the type of attack to its description. (Not all options are used.)CCNA3_Ch4_001




  22. Place the following actions in the order in which they occur in a shared key authentication process. (Not all options are used.)CCNA3_Ch4_002




  23. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.


    What is the SSID of the connected network and which message is displayed in the browser window?



    • SSID: Home-Net
      Message:Congratulations! You were able to connect it!

    • SSID: Home-Network
      Message: Good job!

    • SSID: Home-Network
      Message: Well done!​

    • SSID: Home-Net
      Message:Congratulations! You did it!​




READ MORE » CCNA 3 Chapter 4 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 3 Chapter 5 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 3 Chapter 5 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%), CCNA 3 Chapter 5 Exam Answer, CCNA 3 Chapter 5, CCNA 3 Chapter 5 v5, CCNA 3 Chapter 5 100, CCNA 3 Chapter 5 2015


  1. A network administrator has just changed the router ID on a router that is working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset the adjacencies and use the new router ID?



    • Configure the network statements.

    • Change the interface priority.

    • Issue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command.

    • Change the OSPFv2 process ID.




  2. Refer to the exhibit. What three conclusions can be drawn from the displayed output? (Choose three.)i212860v1n1_212860



    • The DR can be reached through the GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface.

    • This interface is using the default priority.

    • The BDR has three neighbors.

    • The router ID on the DR router is 3.3.3.3

    • The router ID values were not the criteria used to select the DR and the BDR.

    • There have been 9 seconds since the last hello packet sent.




  3. When checking a routing table, a network technician notices the following entry:


    O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0


    What information can be gathered from this output?



    • This route is a propagated default route.

    • The route is located two hops away.

    • The metric for this route is 110.

    • The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3.




  4. Which command will a network engineer issue to verify the configured hello and dead timer intervals on a point-to-point WAN link between two routers that are running OSPFv2?



    • show ip ospf neighbor

    • show ip ospf interface serial 0/0/0

    • show ipv6 ospf interface serial 0/0/0

    • show ip ospf interface fastethernet 0/1




  5. A network engineer has manually configured the hello interval to 15 seconds on an interface of a router that is running OSPFv2. By default, how will the dead interval on the interface be affected?



    • The dead interval will now be 15 seconds.

    • The dead interval will now be 30 seconds.

    • The dead interval will now be 60 seconds.

    • The dead interval will not change from the default value.




  6. A network engineer suspects that OSPFv3 routers are not forming neighbor adjacencies because there are interface timer mismatches. Which two commands can be issued on the interface of each OSFPv3 router to resolve all timer mismatches? (Choose two.)



    • no ipv6 ospf hello-interval

    • no ipv6 ospf dead-interval

    • ip ospf hello-interval 10

    • ip ospf dead-interval 40

    • no ipv6 ospf cost 10

    • no ipv6 router ospf 10




  7. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured the OSPF timers to the values that are shown in the graphic. What is the result of having those manually configured timers?i212851v1n1_212851



    • The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2.

    • R1 automatically adjusts its own timers to match the R2 timers.

    • The hello timer on R2 expires every ten seconds.

    • The neighbor adjacency has formed.




  8. Why do OSPF serial interfaces usually require manual bandwidth configuration?



    • OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing table.

    • Each side of an OSPF serial link should be configured with a unique value.

    • All serial interfaces default to a value of 1.544 Mb/s.

    • Bandwidth value affects the actual speed of the link.




  9. Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected to the same LAN segment and are configured to run OSPFv3. They are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?i212848v1n1_212848



    • The IPv6 addresses of R1 and R2 are not in the same subnet.

    • The OSPFv3 process IDs of R1 and R2 are different.

    • The timer intervals of R1 and R2 do not match.

    • The priority value of both R1 and R2 is 1.




  10. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of OSPF authentication has been configured on this interface?i212837v1n1_Question 4



    • simple

    • null

    • plain text

    • MD5




  11. Why is MD5 authentication more secure than simple authentication for OSPF updates?



    • MD5 does not send the password to the neighbor router.

    • MD5 requires passwords that are at least 8 characters long.

    • MD5 uses both a username and a password to authenticate the neighbor.

    • MD5 employs IPsec to keep the updates from being intercepted.




  12. Which two pieces of information are used by the OSPF MD5 algorithm to generate a signature? (Choose two.)



    • secret key

    • OSPF message

    • OSPF router ID

    • router hostname

    • interface IP address




  13. A network engineer is troubleshooting convergence and adjacency issues in an OSPFv2 network and has noted that some expected network route entries are not displayed in the routing table. Which two commands will provide additional information about the state of router adjacencies, timer intervals, and the area ID? (Choose two.)



    • show ip protocols

    • show ip ospf interface

    • show ip route ospf

    • show ip ospf neighbor

    • show running-configuration




  14. When OSPFv2 neighbors are establishing adjacencies, in which state do they elect a DR and BDR router?



    • Exchange state

    • Init state

    • Two-Way state

    • Loading state




  15. A network engineer is troubleshooting an OSPFv2 network and discovers that two routers connected by a point-to-point WAN serial link are not establishing an adjacency. The OSPF routing process, network commands and area ID are all confirmed as correct, and the interfaces are not passive. Testing shows that the cabling is correct, that the link is up, and pings between the interfaces are successful. What is most likely the problem?



    • The subnet masks on the two connected serial interfaces do not match.

    • A clock rate has not been set on the DCE interface of the serial link.

    • The OSPFv2 process IDs on each router do not match.

    • A DR election has not taken place.




  16. A network engineer is troubleshooting OSPFv2 routing issues on two connected routers. Which two requirements to form an adjacency need to be verified? (Choose two.)



    • Verify that one of the interfaces that connects the two routers is active and the other passive.

    • Verify that one of the routers is the DR or BDR and the other router a DRother.

    • Verify that the interfaces that connect the two routers are in the same subnet.

    • Verify that the interfaces that connect the two routers are in the same area.

    • Verify that both routers are using the same OSPFv2 process ID.




  17. Which command is used to verify that OSPF is enabled and also provides a list of the networks that are being advertised by the network?​



    • show ip protocols

    • show ip ospf interface

    • show ip interface brief

    • show ip route ospf




  18. Refer to the exhibit. Four routers are connected to an Ethernet LAN segment and are configured to run OSPFv3. However, none of the routers are receiving routing updates. What is the cause of the problem?i212846v1n2_212846



    • The routers are using IPv4 addresses for router IDs.

    • All of the routers have an OSPFv3 interface priority of 0.

    • The network type has been set to BROADCAST instead of NBMA.

    • The routers are using IPv6 link local addresses to communicate.




  19. Refer to the exhibit. These two routers are configured to run OSPFv3 but they are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?i212847v1n1_212847



    • The routers have the same priority.

    • The routers have both been elected as the DR.

    • The routers are configured with the same router ID.

    • The routers do not have global IPv6 addresses that are configured on the Fa0/0 interfaces.




  20. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure R1 to run OSPFv3 but the neighbor adjacency is not forming with the router connected to Fa0/0. What is the cause of the problem?i212845v1n1_212845



    • No router ID has been configured.

    • FastEthernet0/0 has been configured as a passive interface.

    • A link-local address has not been configured on interface FastEthernet0/0.

    • The OSPF process ID and area values are backwards in the interface configuration.




  21. Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.i212797v1n1_212797


    The command         show ipv6 route         can be issued on router R2 to verify the propagation of a static default route from R1 to R2.




  22. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.


    When IPv4 and OSPFv2 are being used, the command        show ip ospf neighbor              is used to verify that a router has formed an adjacency with its neighboring routers.




  23. Match each OSPF state to its function. (Not all options are used.)CCNA_Ch5_001




  24. Match each OSPF election criterion to its sequential order for the OSPF DR and BDR election process. (Not all options are used.)CCNA_Ch5_002




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CCNA 3 Chapter 6 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

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  1. Which statement describes a multiarea OSPF network?



    • It consists of multiple network areas that are daisy-chained together.

    • It requires a three-layer hierarchical network design approach.

    • It has a core backbone area with other areas connected to the backbone area.

    • It has multiple routers that run multiple routing protocols simultaneously, and each protocol consists of an area.




  2. What is one advantage of using multiarea OSPF?



    • It allows OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 to be running together.

    • It enables multiple routing protocols to be running in a large network.

    • It increases the routing performance by dividing the neighbor table into separate smaller ones.

    • It improves the routing efficiency by reducing the routing table and link-state update overhead.




  3. Which characteristic describes both ABRs and ASBRs that are implemented in a multiarea OSPF network?



    • They usually have many local networks attached.

    • They both run multiple routing protocols simultaneously.

    • They are required to perform any summarization or redistribution tasks.

    • They are required to reload frequently and quickly in order to update the LSDB.




  4. An ABR in a multiarea OSPF network receives LSAs from its neighbor that identify the neighbor as an ASBR with learned external networks from the Internet. Which LSA type would the ABR send to other areas to identify the ASBR, so that internal traffic that is destined for the Internet will be sent through the ASBR?



    • LSA type 1

    • LSA type 2

    • LSA type 3

    • LSA type 4

    • LSA type 5




  5. Which two statements correctly describe OSPF type 3 LSAs? (Choose two.)



    • Type 3 LSAs are known as autonomous system external LSA entries.​

    • Type 3 LSAs are generated without requiring a full SPF calculation.​

    • Type 3 LSAs are used for routes to networks outside the OSPF autonomous system​.

    • Type 3 LSAs are known as router link entries​.

    • Type 3 LSAs are used to update routes between OSPF areas.




  6. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.4.0 in the R2 routing table?CCNA3_Ch6_01



    • The network was learned from a router within the same area as R2.

    • The network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.

    • The network can be reached through the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.

    • This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.




  7. A network administrator is verifying a multi-area OSPF configuration by checking the routing table on a router in area 1. The administrator notices a route to a network that is connected to a router in area 2. Which code appears in front of this route in the routing table within area 1?



    • C

    • O

    • O E2

    • O IA




  8. Which three steps in the design and implementation of a multiarea OSPF network are considered planning steps? (Choose three.)



    • Verify OSPF.

    • Configure OSPF.

    • Define the OSPF parameters.

    • Gather the required parameters.

    • Troubleshoot the configurations.

    • Define the network requirements.




  9. A network administrator is implementing OSPF in a portion of the network and must ensure that only specific routes are advertised via OSPF. Which network statement would configure the OSPF process for networks 192.168.4.0, 192.168.5.0, 192.168.6.0, and 192.168.7.0, now located in the backbone area, and inject them into the OSPF domain?



    • r1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 1

    • r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 area 1

    • r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.15.255 area 1

    • r1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0

    • r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 area 0

    • r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.255.255 area 0




  10. The network administrator has been asked to summarize the routes for a new OSPF area. The networks to be summarized are 172.16.8.0, 172.16.10.0, and 172.16.12.0 with subnet masks of 255.255.255.0 for each network. Which command should the administrator use to forward the summary route for area 15 into area 0?



    • area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248

    • area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0

    • area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0

    • area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248




  11. Which two networks are part of the summary route 192.168.32.0/22? (Choose two.)



    • 192.168.31.0/24

    • 192.168.33.0/24

    • 192.168.37.0/24

    • 192.168.35.0/24

    • 192.168.36.0/24

    • 192.168.38.0/24




  12. Where can interarea route summarization be performed in an OSPF network?



    • ASBR

    • DR

    • ABR

    • any router




  13. Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the O IA in the router output?CCNA3_Ch6_03



    • The route was manually configured.

    • The route was learned from within the area.

    • The route was learned from outside the internetwork.

    • The route was learned from another area.




  14. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)CCNA3_Ch6_04



    • The entry for 172.16.200.1 represents a loopback interface.

    • The routing table contains routes from multiple areas.

    • To reach network 172.16.2.0, traffic will travel through the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.

    • The routing table contains two intra-area routes.

    • To reach network 192.168.1.0, traffic will exit via the Serial0/0/0 interface​.




  15. Which command can be used to verify the contents of the LSDB in an OSPF area?



    • show ip ospf database

    • show ip ospf interface

    • show ip ospf neighbor

    • show ip route ospf




  16. Fill in the blank.


    The       backbone       area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.




  17. Fill in the blank. Do not use acronyms.


    OSPF type 2 LSA messages are only generated by the       designated          router to advertise routes in multiaccess networks.




  18. Fill in the blank. Use a number.
    An ASBR generates type     5       LSAs for each of its external routes and floods them into the area that it is connected to.




  19. Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.CCNA3_Ch6_02


    The          network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 1               command must be issued to configure R1 for multiarea OSPF.​




  20. Match each type of OSPF router to its description. (Not all options are used.)CCNA3_Ch6_001





  21. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.


    What is preventing users who are connected to router R2 from accessing resources located either within the network 192.168.1.0 or the internet?



    • The default route is not redistributed correctly from router R1 by OSPF.

    • The interface that is connected to the ISP is down.

    • The router R2 is not receiving any updates from either router R1 or R3.

    • The OSPF network statements are misconfigured on one of the routers.

    • The OSPF timers that are configured on routers R1, R2, and R3 are not compatible.




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CCNA 3 Chapter 7 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 3 Chapter 7 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%), CCNA 3 Chapter 7 Exam Answer, CCNA 3 Chapter 7, CCNA 3 Chapter 7 v5, CCNA 3 Chapter 7 100, CCNA 3 Chapter 7 2015


  1. Which protocol is used by EIGRP to send hello packets?



    • TCP

    • UDP

    • RTP

    • IP




  2. When an EIGRP-enabled router uses a password to accept routes from other EIGRP-enabled routers, which mechanism is used?



    • bounded updates

    • partial updates

    • EIGRP authentication

    • Diffusing Update Algorithm

    • Reliable Transport Protocol




  3. What is the purpose of using protocol-dependent modules in EIGRP?



    • to describe different routing processes

    • to identify different application layer protocols

    • to use different transport protocols for different packets

    • to accommodate routing of different network layer protocols




  4. If all router Ethernet interfaces in an EIGRP network are configured with the default EIGRP timers, how long will a router wait by default to receive an EIGRP packet from its neighbor before declaring the neighbor unreachable?



    • 10 seconds

    • 15 seconds

    • 20 seconds

    • 30 seconds




  5. Which statement describes a characteristic of the delivery of EIGRP update packets?



    • EIGRP uses UDP to send all update packets.

    • EIGRP sends all update packets via unicast.

    • EIGRP sends all update packets via multicast.

    • EIGRP uses a reliable delivery protocol to send all update packets.




  6. Which destination MAC address is used when a multicast EIGRP packet is encapsulated into an Ethernet frame?



    • 01-00-5E-00-00-09

    • 01-00-5E-00-00-10

    • 01-00-5E-00-00-0A

    • 01-00-5E-00-00-0B




  7. Why would a network administrator use a wildcard mask in the network command when configuring a router to use EIGRP?



    • to lower the router overhead

    • to send a manual summarization

    • to exclude some interfaces from the EIGRP process

    • to subnet at the time of the configuration




  8. Refer to the exhibit. Which command should be used to configure EIGRP to only advertise the network that is attached to the gigabit Ethernet 0/1 interface?CCNA3_Ch7_003



    • network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.63

    • network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.192

    • network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.127

    • network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.128




  9. Which EIGRP route would have the preferred administrative distance?



    • a summary route

    • an internal route

    • an external route that is redistributed from RIP

    • an external route that is redistributed from OSPF




  10. Where are EIGRP successor routes stored?



    • only in the routing table

    • only in the neighbor table

    • in the routing table and the topology table

    • in the routing table and the neighbor table




  11. Which table is used by EIGRP to store all routes that are learned from EIGRP neighbors?



    • the routing table

    • the neighbor table

    • the topology table

    • the adjacency table




  12. How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?



    • by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers

    • by comparing known routes to information received in updates

    • by exchanging hello packets with neighboring routers

    • by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors

    • by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers




  13. Which command or commands must be entered on a serial interface of a Cisco router to restore the bandwidth to the default value of that specific router interface?



    • bandwidth 1500

    • shutdown
      no shutdown

    • copy running-config startup-config
      reload

    • no bandwidth




  14. Which command is used to display the bandwidth of an interface on an EIGRP-enabled router?



    • show ip route

    • show interfaces

    • show ip protocols

    • show ip interface brief




  15. A new network administrator has been asked to verify the metrics that are used by EIGRP on a Cisco device. Which two EIGRP metrics are measured by using static values on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)



    • bandwidth

    • load

    • reliability

    • delay

    • MTU




  16. Which three metric weights are set to zero by default when costs in EIGRP are being calculated? (Choose three.)



    • k1

    • k2

    • k3

    • k4

    • k5

    • k6




  17. Refer to the exhibit. R2 has two possible paths to the 192.168.10.4 network. What would make the alternate route meet the feasibility condition?CCNA3_Ch7_001



    • a reported distance less than 3523840

    • a reported distance greater than 41024000

    • a feasible distance greater than 41024000

    • an administrative distance less than 170




  18. What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?



    • The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.

    • The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state.

    • The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails.

    • There is no activity on the route to that network.

    • The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.




  19. Refer to the exhibit. Which two networks contain feasible successors? (Choose two.)CCNA3_Ch7_002



    • 192.168.71.0

    • 192.168.51.0

    • 10.44.100.252

    • 10.44.104.253

    • 10.44.101.252




  20. Fill in the blank.


    In an EIGRP topology table, a route that is in a/an   active      state will cause the Diffusing Update Algorithm to send EIGRP queries that ask other routers for a path to this network.




  21. Order the precedence in which an EIGRP router would choose the router ID. (Not all options are used.)CCNA3_Ch7_001




  22. Match the correct version of EIGRP with the EIGRP features. (Not all options are used.)CCNA3_Ch7_002




  23. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.


    Which code is displayed on the web server?



    • Done

    • EIGRP

    • Complete

    • IPv6EIGRP




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CCNA 3 Chapter 8 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

CCNA 3 Chapter 8 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%), CCNA 3 Chapter 8 Exam Answer, CCNA 3 Chapter 8, CCNA 3 Chapter 8 v5, CCNA 3 Chapter 8 100, CCNA 3 Chapter 8 2015


  1. Refer to the exhibit. All networks are active in the same EIGRP routing domain. When the auto-summary command is issued on R3, which two summary networks will be advertised to the neighbors? (Choose two.)CCNA3_Ch8_01



    • 192.168.1.0/30

    • 192.168.10.0/30

    • 192.168.10.0/24

    • 172.16.3.0/24

    • 172.16.0.0/16




  2. Refer to the exhibit. Router R3 is receiving multiple routes through the EIGRP routing protocol. Which statement is true about the implementation of summarization in this network?CCNA3_Ch8_02



    • Automatic summarization has been enabled only for the 172.21.100.0/24 network.

    • Automatic summarization is disabled on R3.

    • Automatic summarization is enabled on neighboring routers​.

    • Automatic summarization is disabled on a per-interface basis.



  3. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is supported by the output?CCNA3_Ch8_09

    • A static default route has been manually configured on this router.

    • Summarization of routes has been manually configured.

    • A default route is being learned through an external process.

    • The route to 192.168.1.1 represents the configuration of a loopback interface.




  4. Which three statements are advantages of using automatic summarization? (Choose three.)



    • It maximizes the number of routes in the routing table.

    • It increases the size of routing updates.

    • It reduces the frequency of routing updates.

    • It ensures that traffic for multiple subnets uses one path through the internetwork.

    • It improves reachability in discontiguous networks.

    • It decreases the number of entries in the routing table.




  5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is disabled? (Choose two.)CCNA3_Ch8_05



    • 10.1.0.0/16

    • 10.1.2.0/24

    • 10.1.4.0/24

    • 10.1.4.0/28

    • 10.1.4.0/30




  6. Which address best summarizes the IPv6 addresses 2001:DB8:ACAD::/48, 2001:DB8:9001::/48, and 2001:DB8:8752::/49?



    • 2001:DB8:8000::/34

    • 2001:DB8:8000::/36

    • 2001:DB8:8000::/47

    • 2001:DB8:8000::/48




  7. What is a characteristic of manual route summarization?



    • requires high bandwidth utilization for the routing updates

    • reduces total number of routes in routing tables

    • cannot include supernet routes​

    • has to be configured globally on the router




  8. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement accurately reflects the configuration of routing on the HQ router?CCNA3_Ch8_11



    • A static default route was configured on this router.

    • A static default route was learned via EIGRP routing updates.

    • The static default route should be redistributed using the default-information originate command.​

    • The IP address assigned to the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface is 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0.




  9. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has attempted to implement a default route from R1 to the ISP and propagate the default route to EIGRP neighbors. Remote connectivity from the EIGRP neighbor routers to the ISP connected to R1 is failing. Based on the output from the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the problem?CCNA3_Ch8_04



    • The command default-information originate has not been issued on R1.

    • There are no EIGRP neighbor relationships on R1.

    • The ip route command must specify a next-hop IP address instead of an exit interface when creating a default route.

    • The command redistribute static has not been issued on R1.

    • The network statement for the ISP connection has not been issued.




  10. In which IOS CLI mode must a network administrator issue the maximum-paths command to configure load balancing in EIGRP?​



    • global configuration mode

    • interface configuration mode

    • privileged mode

    • router configuration mode




  11. Two routers, R1 and R2, share a 64 kb/s link. An administrator wants to limit the bandwidth used by EIGRP between these two routers to 48 kb/s. Which command is used on both routers to configure the new bandwidth setting?



    • ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 48

    • ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 64 48

    • ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 64

    • ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 75

    • ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 75 100




  12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the shown commands. The EIGRP routing domain has completely converged and a network administrator is planning on configuring EIGRP authentication throughout the complete network. On which two interfaces should EIGRP authentication be configured between R2 and R3? (Choose two.)CCNA3_Ch8_03



    • serial 0/0/1 of R2

    • serial 0/1/0 of R2

    • gig 0/0 of R3

    • serial 0/0/1 of R3

    • serial 0/1/0 of R4




  13. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured EIGRP authentication between routers R1 and R2. After the routing tables are reviewed, it is noted that neither router is receiving EIGRP updates. What is a possible cause for this failure?CCNA3_Ch8_12



    • The same key chain name must be used on each router.

    • The same number of key strings must be used on each router.

    • The key string should be used in interface mode instead of the key chain.

    • The same autonomous system numbers must be used in the interface configurations of each router.

    • The authentication configuration is correct, issue the show ip eigrp neighbors command to troubleshoot the issue.




  14. Two routers, R1 and R2, have established an EIGRP neighbor relationship, but there is still a connectivity problem. Which issue could be causing this problem?​



    • an authentication mismatch

    • an access list that is blocking advertisements from other networks

    • automatic summarization that is disabled on both routers

    • a process ID mismatch




  15. Refer to the exhibit. Remote users are experiencing connectivity problems when attempting to reach hosts in the 172.21.100.0 /24 network. Using the output in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the connectivity problem?CCNA3_Ch8_07



    • The passive-interface command is preventing neighbor relationships on interface GigabitEthernet 0/0.

    • The hello timer has been modified on interface GigabitEthernet 0/1 of R3 and not on the neighbor, causing a neighbor adjacency not to form.

    • The GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface is not participating in the EIGRP process.

    • The GigabitEthernet interfaces are not limiting the flow of EIGRP message information and are being flooded with EIGRP traffic.




  16. Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration shown is applied on router R1, the exhibited status message is displayed. Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor relationship with R2 on the serial 0/1/0 interface. What is the most likely cause of this problem?CCNA3_Ch8_08



    • The passive-interface command should have been issued on serial 0/1/0.

    • The hello interval has been altered on serial 0/1/0 and is preventing a neighbor relationship from forming.

    • The network statement used for EIGRP 55 does not enable EIGRP on interface serial 0/1/0.

    • The IPv4 address configured on the neighbor that is connected to R1 serial 0/1/0 is incorrect.

    • The networks that are configured on serial 0/0/0 and serial 0/1/0 of router R1 are overlapping.




  17. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency.


    What action should be taken to solve this problem?CCNA3_Ch8_13



    • Enable the serial interfaces of both routers.

    • Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates.

    • Configure the same hello interval between the routers.

    • Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.




  18. Refer to the exhibit. Considering that R2, R3, and R4 are correctly configured, why did R1 not establish an adjacency with R2, R3, and R4?CCNA3_Ch8_06



    • because the automatic summarization is enabled on R1

    • because the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is declared as passive for EIGRP

    • because the IPv4 address on Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect

    • because there is no network command for the network 192.168.1.0/24 on R1




  19. In which scenario will the use of EIGRP automatic summarization cause inconsistent routing in a network?



    • when there is no adjacency that is established between neighboring routers

    • when there is no common subnet that exists between neighboring routers

    • when the routers in an IPv4 network have mismatching EIGRP AS​ numbers

    • when the routers in an IPv4 network are connected to discontiguous networks with automatic summarization enabled




  20. Which command can be issued on a router to verify that automatic summarization is enabled?



    • show ip eigrp interfaces

    • show ip protocols

    • show ip interface brief

    • show ip eigrp neighbors




  21. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
    What is the command that should be issued on a router to verify that EIGRP adjacencies were formed?​      show ip eigrp neighbors




  22. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
    The      passive-interface              command causes an EIGRP router to stop sending hello packets through an interface.




  23. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.


    R1 and R2 could not establish an EIGRP adjacency. What is the problem?​



    • EIGRP is down on R1.

    • EIGRP is down on R2.

    • R1 Fa0/0 and R2 Fa0/0 are on different networks.

    • R1 Fa0/0 is not configured to send hello packets.

    • R1 Fa0/0 link local address is wrong.




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CCNA 3 Chapter 9 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

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  1. Which IOS 12.4 software package integrates full features, including voice, security, and VPN capabilities, for all routing protocols?



    • Advanced Security

    • Advanced IP Services

    • Advanced Enterprise Services

    • Service Provider Services




  2. What is the major release number in the IOS image name c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-3.T.bin?



    • 2

    • 3

    • 15

    • 52

    • 1900




  3. What statement describes a Cisco IOS image with the “universalk9_npe” designation for Cisco ISR G2 routers?



    • It is an IOS version that can only be used in the United States of America.

    • It is an IOS version that provides only the IPBase feature set.

    • It is an IOS version that offers all of the Cisco IOS Software feature sets.

    • It is an IOS version that, at the request of some countries, removes any strong cryptographic functionality.​




  4. Which statement describes a difference between the IOS 15.0 extended maintenance release and a standard maintenance release?



    • They consist of two separate parallel trains.

    • The extended maintenance release will deliver new IOS features as soon as they are available.

    • The standard maintenance release enables faster IOS feature delivery than the extended maintenance release does.

    • A new standard maintenance release will synchronize with the latest extended maintenance release before the extended is made available.




  5. When a router is powered on, where will the router first search for a valid IOS image to load by default?



    • RAM

    • ROM

    • flash memory

    • NVRAM




  6. A network engineer is upgrading the Cisco IOS image on a 2900 series ISR. What command could the engineer use to verify the total amount of flash memory as well as how much flash memory is currently available?



    • show flash0:

    • show version

    • show interfaces

    • show startup-config




  7. The customer of a networking company requires VPN connectivity for workers who must travel frequently. To support the VPN server, the customer router must be upgraded to a new Cisco IOS software version with the Advanced IP Services feature set. What should the field engineer do before copying the new IOS to the router?



    • Set the router to load the new IOS image file directly from the TFTP server on the next reboot.

    • Delete the currently installed IOS by using the erase flash: command, and reload the router

    • Issue the show running-configuration command to determine the features of the currently installed IOS image file.

    • Issue the show version and the show flash commands to ensure that the router has enough memory and file space to support the new IOS image.




  8. A network administrator configures a router with the command sequence:


    R1(config)# boot system tftp://c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin
    R1(config)# boot system rom


    What is the effect of the command sequence?



    • On next reboot, the router will load the IOS image from ROM.

    • The router will copy the IOS image from the TFTP server and then reboot the system.

    • The router will load IOS from the TFTP server. If the image fails to load, it will load the IOS image from ROM.

    • The router will search and load a valid IOS image in the sequence of flash, TFTP, and ROM.




  9. Beginning with the Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0, which license is a prerequisite for installing additional technology pack licenses?



    • IPBase

    • DATA

    • UC

    • SEC




  10. Which three software packages are available for Cisco IOS Release 15.0?



    • DATA

    • IPVoice

    • Security

    • Enterprise Services

    • Unified Communications

    • Advanced IP Services




  11. When a customer purchases a Cisco IOS 15.0 software package, what serves as the receipt for that customer and is used to obtain the license as well?



    • Software Claim Certificate

    • End User License Agreement

    • Unique Device Identifier

    • Product Activation Key




  12. Which command would a network engineer use to find the unique device identifier of a Cisco router?



    • show version

    • show license udi

    • show running-configuration

    • license install stored-location-url




  13. A newly hired network engineer wants to use a 2911 router from storage. What command would the technician use to verify which IOS technology licenses have been activated on the router?



    • show flash0:

    • show interfaces

    • show license

    • show startup-config

    • show version




  14. Which command is used to configure a one-time acceptance of the EULA for all Cisco IOS software packages and features?



    • license save

    • show license

    • license boot module module-name

    • license accept end user agreement




  15. How long is the evaluation license period for Cisco IOS Release 15.0 software packages?



    • 15 days

    • 30 days

    • 60 days

    • 180 days




  16. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
    The license     install      flash0:seck9-C1900-SPE150_K9-FAB12340099.xml command will restore the specified saved Cisco IOS Release 15 license to a router.




  17. Refer to the exhibit. Match the components of the IOS image name to their description. (Not all options are used.)CCNA3_Ch9_01



    • CCNA3_Ch9_001




  18. Match the description to the Cisco IOS category. (Not all options apply.)CCNA3_Ch9_002




READ MORE » CCNA 3 Chapter 9 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)
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